Why were areas of the South so much more Republican than surrounding areas?

[RI]

During the Solid South period, most counties south of the Mason-Dixon line voted in extremely high percentages for the Democrats. However there were a few specific areas that were consistently much more Republican than the surrounding areas with similar demographics. Does anyone know why this was?

Here is a map from 1940 with several such areas circled:

[bgwah]

Gillespie County, TX and the surrounding area is somewhat of a German enclave...

I believe it's a similar story in the area of Missouri you circled, though it's less of a strange spot than the Democratic blob north of it, in my opinion.

[Landslide Lyndon]

From what I've read, eastern Tennessee and northwest Arkansas were traditionally Republican strongholds.
Same for those south/southeast Kentucky counties.  

[Hash]

Old rabidly Unionist areas in AL, GA and TN also.

[Kaine for Senate '18]

Old rabidly Unionist areas in AL, GA and TN also.

Basically, yeah.  FDR won every county in Georgia except Fannin in 1936 and 1940.

[phk]

Either German enclaves or Unionist areas.

[RI]

Was there any particular reason why these areas were more Unionist?

[jokerman]

Was there any particular reason why these areas were more Unionist?

Most of it is miserable mountain country full of a people who were always hostile to the culture of the rest of the south.

[Nym90]

Was there any particular reason why these areas were more Unionist?

Most of it is miserable mountain country full of a people who were always hostile to the culture of the rest of the south.

Unfortunately they are now very similar to the rest of the white rural South, at least in terms of how they vote.

[Sbane]

Was there any particular reason why these areas were more Unionist?

Most of it is miserable mountain country full of a people who were always hostile to the culture of the rest of the south.

They also saw no benefits from slavery and had no reason to defend it. Rather it hurt them by lowering the value of labor.

[jokerman]

Was there any particular reason why these areas were more Unionist?

Most of it is miserable mountain country full of a people who were always hostile to the culture of the rest of the south.

Unfortunately they are now very similar to the rest of the white rural South, at least in terms of how they vote.

Indeed culture too (though its not quite as monolithically one "country" culture as media portrays it), which is generally more the result of the degeneration of the rural south (or its overwhelment by crude suburbanites, who pathetically imitate the ways of southern culture) than much change (except that created by modern technology) among the hill peoples.

[minionofmidas]

Was there any particular reason why these areas were more Unionist?

Most of it is miserable mountain country full of a people who were always hostile to the culture of the rest of the south.

...while the ones in Texas were German enclaves (and rabidly unionist for that very reason.)

[Nym90]

Did heavily German areas vote unusually Republican in 1916, 1940, and 1944? It seems from my extremely preliminary review that they did.

[minionofmidas]

Did heavily German areas vote unusually Republican in 1916?

Certainly did in Wisconsin.
IIRC Green Bay voted unusually Democratic that year... Green Bay is about the only place in the US with a sizeable Belgian immigrant community.

[Rob]

Did heavily German areas vote unusually Republican in 1916, 1940, and 1944? It seems from my extremely preliminary review that they did.

German Protestants and German Catholics alike, north and south, did show radical GOP swings in those years. 1920 was especially ugly.

[phk]

Did heavily German areas vote unusually Republican in 1916, 1940, and 1944? It seems from my extremely preliminary review that they did.

German Protestants and German Catholics alike, north and south, did show radical GOP swings in those years. 1920 was especially ugly.

WWI?