What percentage of the young people in 1185 were abstinent until marriage? 2

[Willy Woz]

Now we're counting betrothals and common law marriages as equivalent to church/state marriages...

[Verily]

As the law of the Catholic church at the time said that two people who had sex thereby became married (under common law, assuming they were not yet married), everyone.

[Willy Woz]

Then how come everyone is voting "less than 75%"?

[The Mikado]

A Muslim man who took a second/third/fourth wife would've had sex before his second/third/fourth marriage.  So one four-wived Muslim man tallies up to three not abstinent before marriage violations.

[The Man From G.O.P.]

Easily under 75%

[Willy Woz]

Easily under 75%

?

[The Man From G.O.P.]

Easily under 75%

?

I don't claim to be an expert but I am minoring in European History, the poor shagged on a regular basis, the church even recognized the impossibility of making God bigger than the sex drive by the common law marriage mentioned above, meanwhile the upper class was usually involved in the royal court system in some role, meaning the entire goal of noble females was to screw someone a level up and the objective of men was to.... do what they did best. Then again, nobility made up a very small fraction of the population, but the poor were equally promiscuous.

[Willy Woz]

Would that have made over 90% of kids be illegitimate?

[The Man From G.O.P.]

Would that have made over 90% of kids be illegitimate?

I don't know about 90%.... but I'm sure it was high.

[Willy Woz]

Would that have made over 90% of kids be illegitimate?

Actually it was only about 33%...

I don't know about 90%.... but I'm sure it was high.