So do we overall agree with its conclusion, that this interpretation of Aristotle is correct? Or do some of the other points in the article made by John Stuart Mill, or Nietzsche, seem more true? Are there major holes in this?
I haven't read much of Mill, but he did say that utilitarianism need not only include our selfish desires, making ourselves happy, but also including others. He mentions the Christian ethic of love of the neighbor and the golden rule. So, it would seem that he was allowing for the possibility of including others in the utilitarian principles.
Going of on a tangent the issue for me, is do we include the maximum happiness of as many people possible or hold a principle that it should be all people, not just as many people as possible? (excuse me please if my words lack coherency, because I am thinking out loud, which is the norm for me). By all of this I mean do the needs of the one, need to be included in the needs of the many?
As for Nietzsche, yes an interesting point, that we can tolerate suffering if we can see the meaning of why we are suffering (that is to say that we see a greater good in the long term).
IIRC Nietzsche spoke about Amor Fati (love of fate), that is to say accepting things the way they are (although the contrary view is the change the things we can not accept, rather than accepting the things we can not change, although the former is not always possible, but sometimes neither is the latter, since some things simply can not be accepted).
The Buddhist philosophy if I understand it correctly and if I am not oversimplifying it, involves letting go of desire, which although something commonly understood to be the pursuit of happiness, in fact, leads to greater unhappiness. There is the desire to be happy and the desire not to suffer, but are these two sides of the same figurative coin?
edit: what doesn't kill me makes me stronger, but what doesn't make me stronger kill me?