Did the democrats use to overperform in Iowa until 2012?
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  Did the democrats use to overperform in Iowa until 2012?		 « previous next »
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Author Topic: Did the democrats use to overperform in Iowa until 2012?  (Read 733 times)
buritobr
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« on: December 23, 2020, 03:32:13 PM »
Iowa is in the middle of American heartland. It is >90% non-hispanic white. Its biggest city Des Moines has only 214K inhabitants. So, Iowa has all characteristics of a heavy republican state.
Even though, Iowa used to have popular vote close to the national popular vote until 2012. In 1988, Iowa was 17p more democratic than the nation.
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Skill and Chance
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« Reply #1 on: December 23, 2020, 03:54:35 PM »
Yes, Iowa is best thought of as an eastern extension of the Plains/agricultural states that have basically always been socially conservative but briefly swung left for the Farm Crisis generation and the Dust Bowl generation before that.
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H. Ross Peron
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« Reply #2 on: December 23, 2020, 04:50:07 PM »
Yes, but it only really started in 1984. Prior to that Iowa voted somewhat to the right of the country.
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Motorcity
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« Reply #3 on: December 25, 2020, 04:43:18 PM »
Ironically, they voted Republican in 1940 and 1944
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buritobr
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« Reply #4 on: December 25, 2020, 05:15:32 PM »
Yes, the democratic surge took place in Iowa between 1984 and 2012. Until 1980, Iowa used to be more republican than the average of the country. Nixon won in 1960, Ford won in 1976.
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Obama-Biden Democrat
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« Reply #5 on: December 26, 2020, 08:23:28 PM »
« Edited: December 26, 2020, 11:16:05 PM by Ridin' With Biden »
Quote from: Motorcity on December 25, 2020, 04:43:18 PM
Ironically, they voted Republican in 1940 and 1944

The Midwest is filled with Germans and was anti war, it is also why WI voted Republican in 1944.
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Motorcity
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« Reply #6 on: December 27, 2020, 01:36:43 AM »
Quote from: Ridin' With Biden on December 26, 2020, 08:23:28 PM
Quote from: Motorcity on December 25, 2020, 04:43:18 PM
Ironically, they voted Republican in 1940 and 1944

The Midwest is filled with Germans and was anti war, it is also why WI voted Republican in 1944.
That would explain why FDR couldn't win states like North Dakota or Kansas in 1940 or 1944. But what about Wyoming and Colorado?

Also, why is there no mention of FDR losing these states? I googled it but I can't find anything explaining these losses unlike Reagan in Minnisota 1984
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