Bryan results
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Author Topic: Bryan results  (Read 1774 times)
Gustaf
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« on: October 05, 2005, 03:36:13 AM »

There were pretty big drops in turnout in most Southern states when Bryan ran in 1896. Does anyone know why?
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Bono
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« Reply #1 on: October 05, 2005, 04:10:48 AM »

There were pretty big drops in turnout in most Southern states when Bryan ran in 1896. Does anyone know why?

I think it's pretty obvious.
They would never vote Republican, for it was the South, but they were still conservatives and wouldn't vote for bryan.
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jimrtex
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« Reply #2 on: October 05, 2005, 08:04:24 AM »

There were pretty big drops in turnout in most Southern states when Bryan ran in 1896. Does anyone know why?
Was there?  I just quickly looked at some results and I didn't really see it.

Possible differences - no separate Populist candidate.  Increased use of literacy tests and poll taxes.   Democrat (non-presidential) primaries which had much higher turnout than the general election.
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minionofmidas
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« Reply #3 on: October 05, 2005, 09:58:10 AM »

What Jim said.
NOT what Bono said (although...with so few Southerners actually voting...those that did might actually have been conservatives)
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Bono
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« Reply #4 on: October 05, 2005, 10:26:14 AM »

What Jim said.
NOT what Bono said (although...with so few Southerners actually voting...those that did might actually have been conservatives)

Probably conservatives is not the right word. I meant the old skool democrat type, the gold democrats.
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minionofmidas
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« Reply #5 on: October 05, 2005, 10:42:57 AM »

What Jim said.
NOT what Bono said (although...with so few Southerners actually voting...those that did might actually have been conservatives)

Probably conservatives is not the right word. I meant the old skool democrat type, the gold democrats.
Nah, they were from the Northeast and Uppermost, Unionist South(though see caveat above)
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Gustaf
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« Reply #6 on: October 05, 2005, 04:21:56 PM »

I was thinking that Bryan got hurt by his populism and that this prompted the Democratic machine to work harder on decreasing the Republican vote, leading to an over-all drop. What do you say to that?
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jimrtex
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« Reply #7 on: October 06, 2005, 12:27:58 AM »

There were pretty big drops in turnout in most Southern states when Bryan ran in 1896. Does anyone know why?
There was a drop in turnout in 4 southern states: SC -2%, LA -12%, AL -17%, GA -28%.

There was an increase in turnout in the other 7 states of the Confederacy.  In five of the states the rate of increase was greater than the national increase of 15%: MS 32%, FL 31%, TX 29%, TN 21%, NC 18%.  The other two are AR 1%, VA 1%.

There doesn't seem to be a particular pattern. 

In 1892 Alabama, Harrison only received 9K, while Weaver received 84K.  In 1896 Alabama, McKinley receive 56K.  The Democrat vote (Cleveland and Bryan) declined slightly fron 138 to 131K.

It is possible that in 1892, that there was a perception that Weaver was competitive, which might have increased Democrat turnout.  Meanwhile there may have been switching from the non-Democrat Weaver to the non-Democrat McKinley.  In some states, Bryan ran on both the Democrat and Populist ticket.  In others, on only the Democrat ticket.

Georgia had the largest drop, but there was a Republican increase.

In Louisiana and South Carolina, it looks like turnout shrinkage without much change in result.

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Gustaf
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« Reply #8 on: October 10, 2005, 12:42:36 PM »

What I meant was rather this...it seemed to me, at my first glance, that the states where Bryan did well experienced turn-out drops, while those where he did worse did not. Hence my assumption. I should note though that I'm comparing with the 1888 election, because of Weaver's run.
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jimrtex
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« Reply #9 on: October 10, 2005, 09:47:33 PM »

It appears to me that the large dropoffs in turnout were between 1888 and 1892, with some recovery in 1896. 
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minionofmidas
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« Reply #10 on: October 11, 2005, 04:47:56 AM »

It appears to me that the large dropoffs in turnout were between 1888 and 1892, with some recovery in 1896. 
...and they were probably mostly due to grandfather clauses etc.
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Gustaf
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« Reply #11 on: October 11, 2005, 12:19:44 PM »

Grandfather clauses? Please explain. Smiley

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minionofmidas
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« Reply #12 on: October 11, 2005, 12:22:35 PM »

They were tightening the laws to keep people from voting in those years.
The grandfather clause was actually a clause to get people to be allowed to vote after all, even if they were poor and illiterate, as long as a direct ancestor of theirs had voted  in the same county, or the same state, applications vary, at some early date when no Black voted, usually the very first postwar election of 1865 (not as obvious as making it pre-1860.)
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