At risk of ruining the festive mood of recent posts, is there any reason why this wouldn't have been revoked during the legislative reset? I would argue resolutions ought to be counted as legislation.
Not that I don't agree with the consensus regarding the actions of the politician in question. Seems a bit redundant though.
I would like some focus drawn back to these matters. It has not been established who gave him OAS and when.
It is also not been established that the resolution is still in effect, I am fairly certain the reset did in fact wipe all resolutions.