Apparently only Hawaii and New Mexico are allowed multimember congressional districts.
https://www.govtrack.us/congress/votes/90-1967/h48
And since both states have significant minority populations, the VRA could still force them to have single member districts (or 2-1 for NM).
It looks like this law contradicts the Founding Fathers' original intent. Multimember districts make sense in densely packed urban areas where two single neighboring districts would be very tiny. In these urban areas, multimember districts can reduce disenfranchisement of minority voters. Multimember districts would also be less partisan by not being so geographically small. How would an originalist view this 1967 law?
http://archive.fairvote.org/library/history/flores/district.htm
It's certainly not prohibited by the Constitution to have multimember districts, and the founding generation might have found it odd to prohibit it, but Art 1, Sec 4:1 tends to imply that Congress can choose to do so.