When did German failure become virtually certain in WW2? (user search)
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June 04, 2024, 11:43:58 PM
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  When did German failure become virtually certain in WW2? (search mode)
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Question: ?
#1
Sept 3, 1939 (France and Britain Declare War on Germany)
 
#2
June 4, 1940 (Dunkirk evacuations succeed)
 
#3
October 23, 1940 (Spain doesn’t join Axis)
 
#4
October 31, 1940 (Germany significantly cuts back bombing of UK due to losses)
 
#5
November-December 1940 (Soviet-Axis talks stall, USSR doesn’t join Axis)
 
#6
March 11, 1941 (USA approves Lend-Lease to European Allies)
 
#7
June 22, 1941 (Germany invades USSR)
 
#8
January  7th, 1942 (Barbarossa fails, Germany can’t reach Moscow)
 
#9
December 11th, 1941 (USA declares war on Germany)
 
#10
February 2, 1943 (Germany loses Battle of Stalingrad)
 
#11
July 25, 1943 (Germany diverts units to occupy Italy)
 
#12
August 23, 1943 (Germany loses Battle of Kursk)
 
#13
January 27, 1944 (Germany withdraws from Leningrad)
 
#14
June 6, 1944 (D-Day landings)
 
#15
January 25th, 1945 (Allies win Battle of Bulge)
 
#16
May 8th, 1945 (Germany finally surrenders)
 
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Author Topic: When did German failure become virtually certain in WW2?  (Read 2448 times)
Orser67
Junior Chimp
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Posts: 5,946
United States


« on: August 01, 2022, 07:16:46 PM »

While Stalingrad (and to a lesser extent, the concurrent Guadalcanal campaign) was a huge turning point, I think the Axis powers may have still had a chance of victory until later in 1943. During that year, the Allies more or less achieved victory in the Mediterranean theater, the Soviets won a major victory at the Battle of Kursk, and Churchill and FDR committed to invade France at the Tehran Conference.

But I think people sometimes ignore the possibility of some kind of negotiated outcome, which is what Germany was shooting for towards the end of the war. I think the Battle of the Bulge was the last chance the Germans had of anything short of unconditional surrender, though I could also see an argument for mid-1944 (Operation Bagration+D-Day).
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