Because the first amendment very clearly states "Congress shall pass no law..." The others are explicit rights.
What I think John Ford is talking about is, in the 14th amendment: No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States;
This is a truism. The Constitution was already the supreme law of the land, and the second through eighth amendments were already supreme over state law. If it wasn't, an amendment to the Constitution couldn't make itself supreme over the states anyway.
So you believe there is no right to free speech? Or religion? Or the press? Only a restricition on congress from infringing these things?
I think you'd be hard pressed to find much support for this idea in the writings of the foudners or from subsequent constitutional scholars.