Having some sort of function ≠ having legal effect. Your explanation is inadequate because it does not give the word legal effect; it suggests they are there as a clarification or as a redundancy. They need to be given some sort of independent effect; otherwise, why include them? As you've observed, none of the other amendments contain similar provisions setting out their purposes or providing extra layers of protection for certain rights. The words have to mean something.
I think the best interpretation is this: As our Esteemed President Brandon said, no amendment is absolute. For example, there are instances in which free speech can be abridged in some ways (time, place, and manner of speech restrictions especially, or truth in advertising). What the prefatory clause does in the Second Amendment is establish the purpose of the amendment, from which it logically follows that any congressional action constraining the "right to keep and bear arms" will be subject to particularly heightened scrutiny if it impinges upon the existence or structure of the militias.
Continuing the analogy, speech is typically only abridged in ways that do not fundamentally grapple with the First Amendment's core purposes (the protection of political speech, the ability to criticize the government publicly, etc). Limiting the location in which someone can protest does not abridge this right. Congruently, under the Second Amendment, removing the rights of felons to own firearms does not abridge the central purpose of the amendment, which is to ensure that the citizens can form militias for their defense against the government. It also serves a compelling state interest. Banning
all private gun ownership, on the other hand, does impinge upon this right.
And yes, I do think you can make the Constitution say whatever you want it to say.
Ok, this is all I really needed to hear. I'm not going to discuss this any further with someone who by his own admission does not care about what the text says. It's a waste of my time, and I need to study for finals.
No one is arguing about "what the law is." Any moron can google that. The question here is whether the Supreme Court's reasoning in that opinion made sense, whether it was a correct interpretation of the Constitution. Saying "well the Supreme Court said it" doesn't change the merit of the argument — the Supreme Court has said a lot of things that we can recognize today were poorly reasoned. Certainly I would hope you are not about to defend the reading of the Fifth Amendment they offered up in Korematsu.
That said, I guess Dule was right that he needed to clarify that for the half-literate reading this thread.
Wow. Again: I was not justifying my opinion using Scalia's view. I was simply pointing out that
I am not the only person who holds this perspective-- which was
contrary to your comment, which implied that it was just my argument. It was a clarifying statement for anyone else who was reading the exchange.
If nothing else, you've definitely changed my mind on something. I realize now that I have seriously underestimated the degree to which otherwise intelligent people can misread basic English sentences.