When did German failure become virtually certain in WW2?

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Stalingrad produced irreplaceable losses, but the root cause of that were offenses slowing down sometime during 1942.

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9/1/1939

If we are going that far, might as well go to the Night of the Long Knives where Hitler purged all the competent officers, making the German military rely on aristocrats who were incompetent at their jobs.

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^^^ Moreso I was referring to the death of Ernst Röhm, who wanted to reform the army to make it more efficient. By the end of the war the Nazis were pretty regretful of not going with these reforms.

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Since ~1700.
The appearance of impressing continentalEuropeans like Prince EUGEN de Savoy, FREDERIC II, MIRABEAU, NAPOLEON, TALLEYRAND, METTERNICH, GARIBALDI, BISMARCK, WILLIAM II aso. overshadowed, that the decisive forces were increasingly England/US and Russia/SU. A development for not less than 300 years, culminating 1945ff. and ending only in the very recent past.

Victory for England was only certain from 1815. Before then it was a tug of war between England, France, and Spain with no clear leading European power.

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Since ~1700.
The appearance of impressing continentalEuropeans like Prince EUGEN de Savoy, FREDERIC II, MIRABEAU, NAPOLEON, TALLEYRAND, METTERNICH, GARIBALDI, BISMARCK, WILLIAM II aso. overshadowed, that the decisive forces were increasingly England/US and Russia/SU. A development for not less than 300 years, culminating 1945ff. and ending only in the very recent past.

Victory for England was only certain from 1815. Before then it was a tug of war between England, France, and Spain with no clear leading European power.

Even, if we saw it as the fights of soulless apeHerds, there would remain the fact, that EngLand ousted Spain&France in the colonies and erected its Empire - what do some victories or defeats on the continent count against that?!
Even more so, if we see it as the fights of human beings with ideas. (And even an amateur should be able to detect, that the antAgonism US-SU was based on distinct worldViews. Whose roots go back to 1700 [and earlier]).
The great P.HAZARD described well, how EngLand took over the leadership, first in philoSophy ("Locke-era") - MONTESQUIEU & VOLTAIRE learnt there -, then in manners (GAINSBOROUGH-aristoCrats!), finally in politics&economy. The XVIIIth was EngLand's siglo del oro.

Spain’s holdings were much better and provided a higher ROI compared to the meager Caribbean island chains, the 13 colonies, and Canada. France had a much better geospatial position and prevented Hapsburg or English agendas all up till the late 1770s.

The notion that England provided good philosophical takes compared to the might and relevance of the Germanic—or even one man, Goethe— states or France is incorrect, and no stint in England by Voltaire is gonna change that