Why has the Spanish language been politicized?
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  Why has the Spanish language been politicized?
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Author Topic: Why has the Spanish language been politicized?  (Read 887 times)
Samof94
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« on: April 06, 2021, 06:02:01 AM »

What made it so politicized in a racial sense? The GOP often vilifies the languages outside of Florida.
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parochial boy
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« Reply #1 on: April 06, 2021, 06:41:01 AM »

Prepare for the hot take, or not very hot take really, but language has always been very politicised, because of how tightly bound with identity it is.
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Del Tachi
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« Reply #2 on: April 06, 2021, 10:08:09 AM »

I don't think it is that politicized
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Former President tack50
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« Reply #3 on: April 06, 2021, 11:38:10 AM »

Prepare for the hot take, or not very hot take really, but language has always been very politicised, because of how tightly bound with identity it is.

Basically this. Let's leave it as a mildly warm take Tongue

Hell you don't even need to travel far away from the US to find places with politicized language! (See: Quebec)
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RINO Tom
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« Reply #4 on: April 06, 2021, 02:33:34 PM »

I don't think it is that politicized

Yeah ... is this some well-known thing?  Lol.
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True Federalist (진정한 연방 주의자)
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« Reply #5 on: April 07, 2021, 09:11:58 AM »

Because the Republican Party has been overrun by Catalonians?  Devil
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Red Velvet
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« Reply #6 on: April 07, 2021, 04:58:47 PM »

I don’t think so, maybe only in US context due to rise of Hispanic immigrants and Catalan context due to Spanish historical “oppression” of repressing Catalan language. They have political backgrounds in those places.

I like Spanish because it’s a language I don’t even have to study much to understand. I actually understand some Spanish speakers more easily than I do Portuguese speakers from Portugal because of their accent. Spanish flows more easily.
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Pink Panther
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« Reply #7 on: April 11, 2021, 08:38:39 PM »

Because it's probably the main cultural idea linked to immigrants from Latin America in the U.S., and since immigration is a major issue in U.S., the language has become a major symbol of that said issue.
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darklordoftech
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« Reply #8 on: April 12, 2021, 01:38:56 AM »

Because there’s been tensions between “Hispanics” and English-speaking Americans since Colonial times.
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satsuma
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« Reply #9 on: April 12, 2021, 09:31:20 PM »

I think it was more politicized in the 2000s? Who runs on "English-only" anymore?
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Damocles
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« Reply #10 on: April 22, 2021, 07:44:02 PM »

The truth of the matter is that a substantial portion of what’s now the southwestern United States, for centuries prior to their conquest in 1848-49, was under the jurisdiction of the Viceroyalty of New Spain, and a series of Mexican revolutionary states. The northern parts of these territories were difficult for the authorities in CDMX to enforce their sovereignty over, and secessionists and dissidents moved northward.

Texas is unique in that its origins as a state went far beyond Davy Crockett and the Alamo. Tejanos in the region (ie creole/mulatto Hispanophone dissidents and settlers from Mexico) bet that an independent republic was their best chance at achieving their self-determination. It just so happened that they got screwed over by Anglophone whites from the southern and eastern US who wanted to move there and establish slave plantations.
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