Southern Legislation Introduction Thread
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #225 on: June 11, 2022, 09:29:05 AM »
« edited: June 11, 2022, 11:25:01 AM by Mr. Reactionary »

Quote
Exhibit B: Expenditures

1. Education ($7.096 Billion)

A. HOPE Lottery Scholarships ($5.43 Billion)
B. STEM ($1.08 Billion)
C. Kobe Bryant Scholarships ($500 Million)
D. Teacher expenses grants ($76 Million)
E. Vocational Programs ($5 Million)
F. Student Athlete Expenses ($5 Million)


2. Welfare ($210.934 Billion)

A. Enhanced Child Tax Credit ($135 Billion)
B. Universal Income Tax Credit ($68 Billion)
C. Grocery Rebate $6.93 Billion)
D. Homeowners Tax Credit $750 Million)
E. Inmate Reentry Programs ($165 Million)
F. Holy Home Gardens Programs ($75 Million)
G. Stillbirth Tax Credit ($9 Million)
H. Prison Libraries Program ($5 Million)


3. Infrastructure ($32.32 Billion)

A. Road and Bridge construction ($11 Billion)
B. Naval infrastructure ($2 Billion)
C. Universal Access to Broadband Act ($7 Billion)
D. DamN it Act ($12.32 Billion )


4. Defense ($500 Million)

A. Southern Guard ($500 Million)


5. Law Enforcement/ Security ($8 Billion)

A. Law Enforcement Operations ($4 Billion)
B. Refund the Police Act ($4 Billion)


6. General ($17.078 Billion)

A. Government Operations $9.96 Billion)
B. Small Business $7 Billion)
C. GARRISON Act ($15 Million)
D. Buy Southern Ads  ($1 Million)
E. Southern Art Museum ($100 Million)
F. Capitol Art Gallery ($2 Million)


7. Unfunded Liabilities ($74.865 Billion)

A. Meramac Bonds ($650 Million by FY 2031)
B. Universal Access to Broadband Act ($25 Billion by FY 2026)
C. DamN it Act ($49.215 Billion by FY 2026)
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #226 on: June 11, 2022, 09:30:22 AM »
« Edited: June 11, 2022, 11:27:29 AM by Mr. Reactionary »

Quote
Exhibit C: Trust Funds

Disaster Relief Trust Fund, before expenditures ($15.01 Billion)

A. Balance ($10 Billion)

B. Transfer ($5 Billion)

C. Donation ($10 Million)

Disaster Relief Trust Fund, balance ($15.01 Billion)


Infrastructure Trust Fund

- Road Account, before expenditures ($21.660 Billion)

A. Gas Tax ($21 Billion)

B. Electric Car Tax ($660 Million)

- Road Account, balance ($10.660 Billion)


- Naval Account, before expenditures ($5.056 Billion)

A. Balance($5 Billion)

B. Dredge Materials ($56 Million)

- Naval Account, balance ($3.056 Billion)


- Internet Account, before expenditures ($32 Billion)

A. Transfer ($25 Billion)

B. Broadband Appropriation ($7 Billion)

- Internet Account, balance ($25 Billion)


- Utilities Account, before expenditures ($45.22 Billion)

A. Transfer ($25 Billion)

B. Energy royalties ($7.25 Billion)

- Utilities Account, balance ($32.25 Billion)


Southern Education Trust Fund, before expenditures ($68.152 Billion)

A. Transfer ($50 Billion)

B. HOPE Lottery ($18.1 Billion)

C. Donations ($52 Million)

Southern Education Trust Fund, balance ($61.056 Billion)


Healthcare Trust Fund, before expenditures ($111 Million)

A. Transfer ($100 Million)

B. Donations ($11 Million)

Healthcare Trust Fund, balance ($111 Million)


Food Security Trust Fund, before expenditures ($183 Million)

A. Transfer ($100 Million)

B. Avocado Tax ($75 Million)

C. Donation ($8 Million)

Food Security Trust Fund, balance ($108 Million)


Civil Defense Trust Fund, before expenditures ($45.001 Billion)

A. Transfer ($44.5 Billion)

B. Regional Guard Appropriation ($500 Million)

C. Donations ($1 Million)

Civil Defense Trust Fund, balance ($44.501 Billion)


Policing Trust Fund, before expenditures ($13.767 Billion)

A. Transfer ($12 Billion)

B. Security Taxes ($1.715 Billion)

C. Equipment Sales ($37 Million)

D. Commemorative Coins ($12 Million)

E. Donations ($3 Million)

Policing Trust Fund, balance ($9.767 Billion)


Environmental Protection Trust Fund, before expenditures ($113 Million)

A. Transfer ($100 Million)

B. Commemorative Coins  ($1 Million)

C. Donations  ($12 Million)

Environmental Protection Trust Fund, balance ($112 Million)


Outdoor Entertainment Trust Fund, before expenditures ($116 Million)

A. Transfer ($100 Million)

B. GARRISON Appropriation ($15 Million)

C. Donations $1 Million)

Outdoor Entertainment Trust Fund, balance ($101 Million)


Kansas Reconstruction Trust Fund, before expenditures ($2.055 Billion)

A. Transfer ($2 Billion)

B. Donations ($55 Million)

Kansas Reconstruction Trust Fund, balance ($2.055 Billion)



Addiction Services Trust Fund, before expenditures ($112 Million)

A. Gambling Taxes ($55 Million)

B. Opioid Taxes ($50 Million)

C. Donations ($7 Million)

Addiction Services Trust Fund, balance ($57 Million)


Public Monument Art Trust Fund, before expenditures ($1.05 Billion)

A. Transfer ($1 Billion)

B. Donations Transfer ($50 Million)

Public Monument Art Trust Fund, balance ($948 Million)


Crisis Pregnancy Trust Fund, before expenditures ($150 Million)

A. Transfer ($100 Million)

B. Abortion Taxes ($21 Million)

C. Plan B Tax ($4 Million)

D. Donations Transfer ($25 Million)

Crisis Pregnancy Trust Fund, balance ($75 Million)
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #227 on: June 11, 2022, 10:03:52 AM »

Quote
MAJOR MINOR SURGERY ACT

Quote
Whereas, doctors have an ethical duty to do no harm and refrain from unnecessarily mutilating healthy patients; and

Whereas, minors lack fully developed brains that limit their ability to weigh the risks and rewards of permanent body-altering cosmetic surgery; and

Whereas, the Southern Region is tasked with protecting the public health, safety, welfare, and morals of the people in the Southern Region;

Now be it enacted that Southern Region hereby ordains the following:

1. It shall be a Class 1 misdemeanor for any person in the Southern Region to perform the following cosmetic surgeries, procedures, and body modifications on or to the otherwise healthy body of a minor patient, regardless of parental consent:

A. Foot-Binding;

B. Female Genital Cutting, clitoris removal, or labiaplasty;

C. Phalloplasty;

D. Penectomy or orchiectomy;

E. Breast or pectoral augmentation, implantation, reduction, or removal;

F. Buttocks augmentation, implantation, reduction, or removal;

G. Rinoplasty;

H. Traecheal shaving;

I. Jawline reshaping or restructuring;

J. Facelifts and browline raising;

K. Neck Stretching;

L. Ear Gauging;

M. Nipple or genital piercing; and

N. Botox injections.

2. Any person convicted of violating this act shall be prohibited from practicing medicine in the Southern Region for five (5) years.

3. This act shall take effect August 1, 2022.
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #228 on: June 11, 2022, 02:25:24 PM »

Quote
PROTECTING OUR PRIVACY FROM BIG TECH ACT

Quote
1. Unless otherwise modified by or in conflict with federal or other Southern law, no person or entity providing banking, credit, debit or other financial services, payment processing services, currency conversion services, utility or common carrier services, or hotel services in the Southern Region or to a resident of the Southern Region shall deny such services or cancel any contract to perform such services to any customer on the basis of such customer's membership in a class protected by law, or on the basis of constitutionally protected speech made or associations conducted by such customer, or to benefit a particular political party, policy, or viewpoint.

A. A violation of this paragraph shall be a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for no more than one (1) year, and a fine of $10,000.00 per individual customer who was denied service.

B. A customer who was unlawfully denied service pursuant to this paragraph may maintain a civil action to recover actual damages, punitive damages of up to $10,000, reasonable legal costs, and any equitable relief necessary to enforce this act.

2. No person who rents or leases real property in the Southern Region shall require the renter or lessee or any agent or invitee thereof to use a cellphone or other internet application in order to enter or access the real property, nor limit entry or access to such real property to any person based on a social credit rating, score, or other determination of societal value calculated by a computer algorithim.

A. A violation of this paragraph shall be a misdemeanor punishable by disgorgement of any profits, imprisonment for no more than one (1) year, and a fine of $10,000.00 per individual person whose rights were violated. Any technology used to faciliate a crime under this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture. Any data collected in violation of this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture.

B. A person whose rights were unlawfully violated pursuant to this paragraph may maintain a civil action to recover actual damages, punitive damages of up to $10,000, reasonable legal costs, and any equitable relief necessary to enforce this act.

3. No person in the Southern Region shall violate the privacy of another by using or permitting a toilet owned by him to perform or conduct a scan or analysis of any part of the body or bodily fluid or waste product of another person, nor shall any such toilet be used to collect data on any other person, nor shall any data obtained from such toilet be sold or transferred to another.

A. This shall not apply if the person using the toilet affirmatively consents to the scan, analysis, collection, sale, or transfer. Requiring consent as a condition of using such toilet shall not be considered affirmative consent.

B. A violation of this provision shall be a misdemeanor punishable by disgorgement of any profits, imprisonment for no more than one (1) year, and a fine of $10,000.00 per individual person whose data was sold. Any toilet used to faciliate a crime under this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture. Any data collected in violation of this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture.

C. A person whose privacy was unlawfully violated pursuant to this paragraph may maintain a civil action to recover actual damages, punitive damages of up to $10,000, reasonable legal costs, and any equitable relief necessary to enforce this act.

4. No person in the Southern Region shall violate the privacy of another by using or permitting facial recognition technology, fingerprint scanning technology, heat scanning technology, implantable microchip technology, retinal scanning technology, DNA scanning technology, or X-Ray scanning technology owned by him to perform or conduct a scan or analysis of the face, fingerprint, or any other part of the body of another person, nor shall any such technology be used to collect data on any other person, nor shall any data obtained from such technology be sold or transferred to another.

A. This shall not apply if the person subject to the technology affirmatively consents to the scan, analysis, collection, sale, or transfer. Requiring consent as a condition to enter a multi-family dwelling or a public place or business shall not be considered affirmative consent, except for employees subject to a written employment contract where notice of such condition is expressly included. Requiring consent as a condition of an end-use customer to fully use or interface with a cellphone, computer, appliance, or product sold to such customer shall not be considered affirmative consent.

B. A violation of this paragraph shall be a misdemeanor punishable by disgorgement of any profits, imprisonment for no more than one (1) year, and a fine of $10,000.00 per individual person whose privacy was violated. Any technology used to faciliate a crime under this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture. Any data collected in violation of this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture.

C. A person whose privacy was unlawfully violated pursuant to this paragraph may maintain a civil action to recover actual damages, punitive damages of up to $10,000, reasonable legal costs, and any equitable relief necessary to enforce this act.

5. No person in the Southern Region shall violate the privacy of another by using or permitting audio recording technology to record or capture the voice or speech of another in a private home or dwelling, nor shall any such technology be used to collect data on any other person in a private home or dwelling,  nor shall any data obtained from such technology in a private home or dwelling, be sold or transferred to another.

A. This shall not apply if the person subject to the technology affirmatively consents to the recording, collection, sale, or transfer. Requiring consent as a condition of an end-use customer to fully use or interface with a cellphone, computer, appliance, or product sold to such customer shall not be considered affirmative consent.

B. A violation of this paragraph shall be a misdemeanor punishable by disgorgement of any profits, imprisonment for no more than one (1) year, and a fine of $10,000.00 per individual person whose privacy was violated. Any technology used to faciliate a crime under this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture. Any data collected in violation of this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture.

C. A person whose privacy was unlawfully violated pursuant to this paragraph may maintain a civil action to recover actual damages, punitive damages of up to $10,000, reasonable legal costs, and any equitable relief necessary to enforce this act.

6. Any data broker as defined by law who collects data in the Southern Region, or who acquires data on residents of the Southern Region is hereby prohibited from selling location data acquired from cellphone or internet applications or usage, regardless of if the data is anonymized or masked.

A. A violation of this paragraph shall be a misdemeanor punishable by disgorgement of any profits, imprisonment for no more than one (1) year, and a fine of $10,000.00 per individual person whose data was sold. Any data collected in violation of this paragraph shall be subject to forfeiture.

B. A customer whose location was unlawfully sold pursuant to this paragraph may maintain a civil action to recover actual damages, punitive damages of up to $10,000, reasonable legal costs, and any equitable relief necessary to enforce this act.

7. No Regional, State, or local government, department, or agency shall require the use of facial recognition technology, fingerprint scanning technology, implantable microchip technology, retinal scanning technology, or DNA scanning technology, in the processing of any tax forms, benefit applications, utility applications, payments, licenses, permits, or other paperwork. This shall not apply to the requirement that certain employees or contractors submit fingerprints as part of an enhanced background check.

8. No Regional, State, or local law enforcement may seize, copy, or view private security camera recordings without consent or a court order or warrant.

9. This act shall take effect August 1, 2022.
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #229 on: June 11, 2022, 04:13:46 PM »
« Edited: June 12, 2022, 01:33:34 PM by Mr. Reactionary »

Quote
SMARTER PHONES ACT

Quote
TITLE I: DEFINITIONS

1. The follow words or terms shall be defined as such in this act:

A. Activate means the process of powering on a device and associating it with a new user account.

B. Device means a tablet or a smart phone sold in the Southern Region and manufactured on or after the date this bill takes effect.

C. Filter means software installed on a device that is capable of preventing the device from accessing or displaying material that is obscene as to minors through the Internet or any applications owned and controlled by the manufacturer and installed on the device.

D. Obscene as to minors means the same as that term is defined in the Obscene As To Minors Act.

E. Manufacturer means a person that is engaged in the business of manufacturing a device and conducts business with persons in the Southern Region.

F. Smart phone means an electronic device that combines a cell phone with a hand-held computer, typically offering Internet access, data storage, and text and email capabilities.

G. Tablet means a mobile device that is equipped with a mobile operating system, touchscreen display, and rechargeable battery; and has the ability to support access to a cellular network.


TITLE II: FILTERS

1. No manufacturer shall manufacture or sell a device in the Southern Region, unless when activated in the Southern Region, such device automatically enables a filter that:

A. when enabled, prevents the user from accessing or downloading material that is obscene as to minors on mobile data networks, applications owned and controlled by the manufacturer, wired Internet networks, and wireless Internet networks;

B. notifies the user of the device when the filter blocks the device from downloading an application or accessing a website;

C. gives a user with a passcode the opportunity to unblock a filtered application or website; and

D. reasonably precludes a user other than a user with a passcode the opportunity to deactivate, modify, or uninstall the filter.
2. A violation of this act shall be a misdemeanor punishable by disgorgement of any profits, imprisonment for no more than one (1) year, and a fine of $10,000.00 per device sold that lacks a filter.

3. This provision does not apply to a manufacturer that makes a good faith effort to provide a device that, upon activation of the device in the Southern Region, automatically enables a generally accepted and commercially reasonable method of filtration in accordance with this act and industry standards.

4. A minor may maintain a civil action to recover actual damages, punitive damages of up to $10,000, reasonable legal costs, and any equitable relief necessary to enforce this act against a manufacturer of a device if the device is activated in the Southern Region, the device does not, upon activation in the Southern Region, enable a filter that complies with the requirements described in this act, and the minor accesses material that is obscene as to minors on the device.

TITLE III: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect immediately.
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #230 on: June 11, 2022, 05:34:11 PM »

Quote
OSTEOPOROSIS ERADICATION ACT

Quote
1. $15 Million from the Healthcare Trust Fund (HTF) is hereby authorized to be expended on a public education campaign to inform the public about prevention and treatment of the health disorder osteoporosis. The public education campaign shall accomplish the goals if this act by:

A. Producing and publishing educational pamphlets on osteoporosis, its warning signs and risk factors, prevention and treatment methods, and the dangers of children taking the drug Leuprorelin. Any State or local health department and any healthcare provider that receives money from an insurer of last resort under the Southern Atlascare program shall publicly display these pamphlets in their healthcare facility and shall provide a copy of each relevant pamphlet to any patient who is newly diagnosed with osteoporosis, who is at an elevated risk of osteoporosis, to the parent or guardian of any minor seeking a prescription for Leuprorelin, or to any person who requests a copy.

B. Targeted advertisements in areas with a high concentration of persons suffering from osteoporosis or with a high concentration of persons with elevated risk factors for osteoporosis.

C. Creating an online portal to host information about osteoporosis including any pamphlets created pursuant to this act. This portal shall also host the full video The Osteoporosis Dance (Claude Pepper Older Americans Center, University of Connecticut Health Center, 1997).

2. August 2022 is hereby designated Osteoporosis Awareness Month.

3. No healthcare provider in the Southern Region shall prescribe or dispense the drug Leuprorelin to a minor without the express written consent of each of the minor's parents or guardians. Any healthcare provider who violates this paragraph shall be prohibited from practicing medicine in the Southern Region for five (5) years.

4. This act shall take effect August 1, 2022.
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blackraisin
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« Reply #231 on: June 21, 2022, 09:17:52 PM »

Quote
TRAVEL AGENT TAX FAIRNESS ACT

Quote
1. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, any State or local tax imposed on or collected in relation to any transient accommodations, whether imposed as a sales tax, a hotel tax, occupancy tax, or otherwise, shall apply solely to amounts received by the operator of a hotel, motel, tavern, inn, tourist cabin, tourist camp, or other place in which rooms are furnished to the public.

2. Under no circumstances shall a travel agent or intermediary be deemed an operator of a hotel, motel, tavern, inn, tourist cabin, tourist camp, or other place in which rooms are furnished to the public unless such travel agent or intermediary actually operates such a facility.

3. This act is intended to clarify that taxes imposed as a sales and/or hotel tax, occupancy tax, or otherwise, shall apply solely to amounts received by operators, as enacted in statutes authorizing such taxes.

4. This act shall take effect immediately.
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #232 on: June 21, 2022, 09:52:01 PM »
« Edited: June 22, 2022, 07:51:31 PM by Mr. Reactionary »

Quote
NO DEATH PANELS ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINITIONS AND ENACTMENT

1. For purposes of this act covered entity means any insurer who sells or offers health insurance in the Southern Region and any healthcare provider who operates in the Southern Region.

2. For purposes of this act disability includes but is not limited to physical, mental, and development disabilities. Down syndrome constitutes a disability.

3. This act shall take effect ninety (90) days after its passage.


TITLE II: ORGAN TRANSPLANTS

1. It is unlawful for a covered entity to do any of the following, solely on the basis of an individual’s disability:

A. Consider an individual ineligible to receive an anatomical gift or organ transplant.

B. Deny medical services or other services related to organ transplantation, including diagnostic services, evaluation, surgery, counseling, and post-operative treatment and services.

C. Refuse to refer the individual to a transplant center or other related specialist for the purpose of being evaluated for or receiving an organ transplant.

D. Refuse to place a qualified recipient on an organ transplant waiting list.

E. Place a qualified recipient on an organ transplant waiting list at a lower priority position than the position at which the individual would have been placed if the individual did not have a disability.

F. Refuse insurance coverage for any procedure associated with being evaluated for or receiving an anatomical gift or organ transplant, including post-transplantation and post-transfusion care.

2. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 1 of this title, a covered entity may take an individual’s disability into account when making treatment or coverage recommendations or decisions, solely to the extent that the disability has been found by a physician or surgeon, following an individualized evaluation of the individual, to be medically significant to the provision of the anatomical gift.

3. If an individual has the necessary support system to assist the individual in complying with post-transplant medical requirements, a covered entity may not consider the individual’s inability to independently comply with post-transplant medical requirements to be medically significant for the purposes of section 2 of this title.

4. A covered entity shall make reasonable modifications to its policies, practices, or procedures to allow individuals with disabilities access to transplantation-related services, including diagnostic services, surgery, coverage, post-operative treatment, and counseling, unless the covered entity can demonstrate that making such modifications would fundamentally alter the nature of such services.

5. A covered entity shall take steps necessary to ensure that an individual with a disability is not denied medical services or other services related to organ transplantation, including diagnostic services, surgery, post-operative treatment, or counseling, due to the absence of auxiliary aids or services, unless the covered entity demonstrates that taking these steps would fundamentally alter the nature of the medical services or other services related to organ transplantation.

6. The provisions of this title apply to all stages of the organ transplant process.

7. No covered entity offering a health insurance policy in the Southern Region that provides coverage for anatomical gifts, organ transplants, or treatment and services related to anatomical gifts or transplants shall do any of the following:

A. Deny coverage to an insured solely on the basis of that individual’s disability.

B. Deny to an individual eligibility, or continued eligibility, to enroll or to renew coverage under the terms of a health insurance policy solely for the purpose of avoiding the requirements of this section.

C. Attempt to induce a health care provider to provide care to an insured in a manner inconsistent with this section by penalizing or otherwise reducing or limiting the reimbursement of a health care provider, or by providing monetary or nonmonetary incentives to a health care provider.

D. Reduce or limit health benefit plan coverage benefits to an insured for any services related to organ transplantation performed determined to be necessary in consultation with the attending physician and the insured.

E. In the case of a health benefit plan maintained pursuant to one or more collective bargaining agreements between employee representatives and one or more employers, any amendment to the health benefit plan made pursuant to a collective bargaining agreement solely to conform to this section shall not be treated as a termination of the collective bargaining agreement.

F. Nothing in this section shall be deemed to require an insurer to provide coverage for a medically inappropriate organ transplant.


TITLE III: LIFE SUPPORT

1. No healthcare facility shall discontinue life-sustaining treatment to an incapacitated patient solely due to the futility of the patient's eventual recovery, unless the patient has signed an advance medical directive authorizing such discontinuation.


TITLE IV: FRIVOLOUS LAWSUITS

1. No court in the Southern Region shall hear or rule upon any civil case raising a claim of wrongful birth or wrongful life.
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #233 on: June 22, 2022, 07:48:39 PM »
« Edited: June 25, 2022, 12:36:51 PM by Mr. Reactionary »

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LET THE WORKERS SPEAK ACT

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TITLE I: RESTRICTIVE COLLECTIVE BARGAINING AGREEMENTS

1. No labor organization shall limit the right of any member thereof to institute an action in any court, or in a proceeding before any administrative agency, irrespective of whether or not the labor organization or its officers are named as defendants or respondents in such action or proceeding, or the right of any member of a labor organization to appear as a witness in any judicial, administrative, or legislative proceeding, or to petition any legislature or to communicate with any legislator, provided that:

A. Any such member may be required to exhaust reasonable hearing procedures (but not to exceed a four (4) month lapse of time) within such organization, before instituting legal or administrative proceedings against such organizations or any officer thereof; and

B. no interested employer shall directly or indirectly finance, encourage, or participate in, except as a party, any such action, proceeding, appearance, or petition.

2. No member of any labor organization may be fined, suspended, expelled, or otherwise disciplined except for nonpayment of dues by such organization or by any officer thereof.

3. Any provision of the constitution and bylaws of any labor organization that is inconsistent with the provisions of this section shall be of no force or effect.


TITLE II: SOCIAL MEDIA

1. As used in this title:

A. Adverse action means to discharge, threaten, or otherwise discriminate against an employee in any manner that affects the employee’s employment, including compensation, terms, conditions, location, rights, immunities, promotions, or privileges.

B. Employer means a person, including the Southern Region, a State, or a political subdivision of a State, that has one (1) or more workers employed in the same business, or in or about the same establishment, with the right to control and direct the work provided by such workers.

C. Personal Internet account means an online account that is used by an employee or applicant exclusively for personal communications unrelated to any business purpose of the employer. Personal Internet account does not include an account created, maintained, used, or accessed by an employee or applicant for business related  communications or for a business purpose of the employer.

2. An employer may not do any of the following:

A. request or require an employee or an applicant for employment to disclose a username and password, or a password that allows access to the employee’s or applicant’s personal Internet account;

B. compel an employee or applicant for employment to add the employer or an employment agency to the employee’s or applicant’s list of contacts associated with a personal Internet account;

C. compel an employee or an applicant for employment to access a personal Internet account in the presence of the employer in a manner that enables the employer to observe the contents of the employee’s or applicant’s personal Internet account;

D. take adverse action, fail to hire, or otherwise penalize an employee or applicant for employment for failure to disclose information or take actions specified in subsection (A)-(C).

3. This title does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:

A. requesting or requiring an employee to disclose a username or password required only to gain access to an electronic communications device supplied by or paid for in whole or in part
by the employer, or an account or service provided by the employer, obtained by virtue of the employee’s employment relationship with the employer, or used for the employer’s business purposes;

B. disciplining or discharging an employee for transferring the employer’s proprietary or confidential information or financial data to an employee’s personal Internet account without the employer’s authorization;

C. conducting an investigation or requiring an employee to cooperate in an investigation if there is specific information about activity on the employee’s personal Internet account, for the purpose of ensuring compliance with applicable laws, regulatory requirements, or prohibitions against work-related employee misconduct, or if the employer has specific information about an unauthorized transfer of the employer’s proprietary information, confidential information, or financial data to an employee’s personal Internet account;

D. restricting or prohibiting an employee’s access to certain websites while using an electronic communications device supplied by, or paid for in whole or in part by, the employer or while using an employer’s network or resources, to the extent permissible under applicable laws; or

E. monitoring, reviewing, accessing, or blocking electronic data stored on an electronic communications device supplied by, or paid for in whole or in part by, the employer, or stored on an employer’s network, to the extent permissible under applicable laws.

4. Conducting an investigation or requiring an employee to cooperate in an investigation as specified herein includes requiring the employee to share the content that has been reported in order to make a factual determination.

5. This title does not prohibit or restrict an employer from complying with a duty to screen employees or applicants before hiring or to monitor or retain employee communications that is established under federal law, by a self-regulatory organization under the Securities and Exchange Act of 1934, or in the course of a law enforcement employment application or law enforcement officer conduct investigation performed by a law enforcement agency.

6. This title does not prohibit or restrict an employer from viewing, accessing, or using information about an employee or applicant that can be obtained without the information described herein or that is available in the public domain.

7. The Attorney General may bring may bring a civil cause of action against an employer in a court of competent jurisdiction on behalf of a citizen aggrieved by a violation of this title, of $1,000 per violation.



TITLE III: EMPLOYER REFERENCES

1. An employer, or an employer’s designee, who discloses truthful and unbiased information about a current or former employee’s job performance to a prospective employer of the employee shall be presumed to be acting in good faith and qualifiedly immune from civil liability for the disclosure and the consequences of the disclosure.

2. An employer, or an employer’s designee, who discloses information about a current or former employee to a prospective employer of the employee shall be absolutely immune from civil liability for the disclosure and the consequences of the disclosure where the disclosure concerns:

A. date of employment;

B. pay level;

C. job description and duties; and

D. wage history.

3. An employer, or an employer’s designee, shall be presumed to be acting in good faith and qualifiedly immune from civil liability for damages arising as a result of hiring or retaining an employee unless the employer, or employer’s designee, knows that the hiring or retaining poses a threat to others, provided the employer, or employer’s designee, has taken reasonable steps to obtain and review the credentials and background of the employee prior to hiring.

4. The presumption of good faith established in this title may be rebutted by clear and convincing evidence that the information disclosed was knowingly false, disclosed with reckless disregard for the truth, deliberately misleading, disclosed for a malicious purpose, or in the violation of a civil right of the current or former employee.

5. Employer immunity may not apply in this title where the information is disclosed in violation of a nondisclosure agreement or the information disclosed was otherwise considered confidential according to applicable federal, Regional, State, or local statutes, rules, or regulations.


TITLE IV: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect ninety (90) days after passage.

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« Reply #234 on: June 23, 2022, 09:33:11 AM »
« Edited: June 25, 2022, 12:32:26 PM by Mr. Reactionary »

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THAT'S MY HOUSE ACT


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TITLE I: RENT CONTROL

1. A State or local governmental unit shall not enact, maintain, or enforce an ordinance or resolution that would have the effect of controlling the amount of rent charged for leasing private residential or commercial property.

2. This act does not impair the right of any State or local governmental unit to manage and control residential property in which the governmental unit has property interest.


TITLE II: FACTORY-BUILT HOUSING

1. As used in this title, the following terms have the following meanings:

A. Factory-built housing means manufactured and modular housing.

B. Manufactured housing means housing built in a factory according to the Federal Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards which went into effect on June 15, 1976.

C. Modular housing means housing built in a factory that meets the Regional, State, or local building codes where the home will be sited.

2. Factory-built housing shall be considered a permitted use in all residential districts established by localities in this Region and shall be accepted at the permitted density for the  zoning district.

3. Localities are permitted to establish reasonable aesthetic standards for factory-built housing within their jurisdiction, including foundation requirements or skirting, building setbacks, historic district guidelines, side and rear yard offsets, subdivision control, architectural landscaping, square footage, and other local site requirements applicable to single-family dwellings. However, these standards and the process for applying them shall be no more restrictive for factory-built housing than for housing units constructed on site.

4. States or localities may be permitted to establish reasonable standards for manufactured housing for unique public safety requirements such as wind, snow and roof loads and risk of radon exposure.

5. Nothing in this title shall be deemed to supersede any valid covenants or deed restrictions.


TITLE III: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect ninety (90) days after passage.
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« Reply #235 on: June 25, 2022, 08:04:22 AM »
« Edited: June 25, 2022, 01:02:52 PM by Mr. Reactionary »

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MORE MEDICINE ACT

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TITLE I: COMPOUNDING PHARMACIES

1. For the purposes of this title:

A. chronically ill patient means a patient whose physician has diagnosed the patient as having a long-term disease or condition that if left untreated may cause major irreversible morbidity and who might benefit from individualized or specialized medication that is not commercially available.

B. compounding pharmacy means a pharmacy that is classified as a 503a pharmacy by the Atlasian Food and Drug Administration (FDA).

C. monographs means quality standards for prescription medicines and dietary supplements that articulate the quality expectations for a medicine or dietary supplement, including its identity, strength, purity and performance.

D. terminally ill patient means a patient whose physician has diagnosed the patient with a disease that, taking into account the patient’s medical circumstances, will cause the patient’s death in a reasonably foreseeable time.

2. Chronically-ill patients and terminally ill patients in the Southern Region have the right to determine, with the assistance and guidance of their health care providers, individual courses of treatment through the use of medications and treatments obtained from a compounding pharmacy.

3. Compounding pharmacies that are licensed in the Southern Region shall have access to Active Pharmaceutical Ingredients for use in compounding that meet Atlasia Pharmacopeia Monographs, if the Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient is:

A. prepared for use by an FDA-registered Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient manufacturer or packager; and

B. shipped into this Region in compliance with Regional and State law and arrives with a certificate of analysis detailing quality specifications, including any medications, dietary supplements and amino acids that are already in use by compounding pharmacies in the Region and State, in order to provide chronically ill patients and terminally ill patients with the prescribed individual course of treatment.

4. Section (3) of this Title does not apply if the Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient is deemed unsafe for compounding by the FDA or is placed on the Interim 503a Category II Bulk Drug Substance List. Compounding pharmacies may use substances placed on the Interim 503a Category III Bulk Drug Substance List only if the substance meets the requirements of this act.

5. This act does not allow any treatment or use of medication that is intended to cause the death of the patient.


TITLE II: DRUG DONATIONS

1. For the purposes of this title:

A. Donate means to give without requiring anything or significant monetary value from the recipient.  The term shall include giving by a nonprofit organization to another nonprofit organization where the donor organization has charged a nominal fee to the donee organization, and distribution by a nonprofit organization to an ultimate recipient who has been required to pay a nominal fee to the nonprofit organization.

B. Drug means:

i. any article recognized in the official Atlasian Pharmacopoeia, or the official National Formulary, or any supplement to them; or

ii. any article intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans; or

iii.  any article other than food intended to affect the structure or any function of the human body; but does not mean medical supply as defined in this title.

C. Gross negligence means conduct by a person with knowledge, at the time of the conduct, that the conduct is harmful to the health or well-being of another person.

D. Intentional misconduct means conduct by a person with knowledge, at the time of the conduct, that the conduct is harmful to the health or well-being of another person.

E.  Medical supply means any instrument, apparatus, implement, contrivance, implant, in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article including any component, part, or accessory, which is:

i.   recognized in the official National Formulary, or the official Atlasian Pharmacopoeia, or any supplement to them; or

ii.   intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other conditions, or in the cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans; or

iii.  intended to affect the structure of any function of the human body, and which does not achieve any of its principal intended purposes through chemical action within or on the human body and which is not dependent upon being metabolized for the achievement of any of its principal intended purposes.

F.   Nonprofit organization means an incorporated or unincorporated entity that:

i.  is operating for religious, charitable, or educational purposes; and

ii. does not provide net earnings to, or operate in any other manner that insures to the benefit of, any office employee, or shareholder of the entity.  As used in this paragraph, earning shall not include employee compensation.

G. Person means an individual, corporation, partnership, organization, association, or governmental entity including but not limited to a drug manufacturer, medical supply manufacturer, retail pharmacy, hospital pharmacy, wholesaler, clinic, physician, nurse, hospital, dentist, outpatient health facility nursing home, home health care entity, or nonprofit drug or medical supply distributor.  In the case of a corporation, partnership, organization, association or government entity, the term includes as officer, director, partner, deacon, elder, priest, pastor, rabbi, imam, trustee, council member, or other elected or appointed individual responsible for the governance of the entity. In the case of an individual, the term includes heirs, executors, and administrators of an estate who donate unused drugs or medical supplies belonging to a deceased person.

2. A person shall not be subject to any civil or criminal liability arising from the nature, age, packaging, or condition of drugs or medical supplies that the person donates in good faith to a nonprofit organization for ultimate distribution to needy individuals, except that this paragraph shall not apply to an injury to or death or an ultimate user or recipient of the drug or medical supply that results from an act or omission of the donor constituting gross negligence or intentional misconduct.

3. If some or all of the donated drugs or medical supplies do not meet all quality and labeling standards imposed by federal, Regional, State, and local laws and regulations, the person who donates the drug or medical supply shall not be subject to civil or criminal liability in accordance with this title if the donor:

A. is informed by the doctor of the distressed or defective condition of the donated drug or medical supply; and

B. agrees to take necessary measures to comply with all relevant quality standards imposed by federal, Regional, State, and local laws and regulations prior to distribution of the donated drug or medical supply; and

C.  is made knowledgeable as to the quality standards applicable to the donated drug or medical supply under federal, Regional, State, and local laws and regulations.

4. This title shall not be construed to create any liability.

5. The Southern Chamber of Delegates memorializes the federal government to work with the Region, States, and localities in establishing recycling and redistribution programs for narcotics in health care facilities and other established state drug repositories.


TITLE III: OVERDOSE PREVENTION

1. For the purposes of this title:

A.  Opioid antagonist means a drug, such as naloxone, that satisfies all of the following:

i.The drug binds to the opioid receptors and competes with or displaces opioid agonists at the opioid receptor site but does not activate the receptors, effectively blocking the receptor and preventing or reversing the effect of an opioid agonist; and

ii.The drug is not a controlled substance.

B. Standing order means an order transmitted electronically or in writing by a practitioner for a drug or device for multiple patients or for one or more groups of patients.

2. The Southern Region shall permit all emergency medical technicians or service providers, certified first responders, law enforcement officers, fire fighters, and physicians, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, or pharmacists to administer naloxone or another opioid antagonist to individuals who are undergoing or who are believed to be undergoing an opioid-related drug overdose.

3. Any emergency medical technicians or service providers, certified first responders, law enforcement officers, fire fighters, and physicians, physician assistants, advanced practice nurses, or pharmacists shall undergo any training necessary to safely and properly administer naloxone or another opioid antagonist.

4. Every ambulance service provider shall do all of the following:

A. Ensure that every emergency medical technicians or service providers and certified first responders under the ambulance service provider’s supervision who has obtained the training necessary to safely and properly administer naloxone or another opioid antagonist has a supply of naloxone or the other opioid antagonist available for administration when he or she is performing his or her duties as an emergency medical technician, to the extent that naloxone or the other opioid antagonist is available to the ambulance service provider.

B. Require each emergency medical technicians or service providers and certified first responders under the supervision of the ambulance service provider to keep a record of each instance in which naloxone or another opioid antagonist is administered to an individual who is undergoing or who is believed to be undergoing an opioid-related drug overdose.

C. Submit such records to the State in which the administration occurs annually.

5.  A law enforcement agency or fire department may enter into a written agreement to affiliate with an ambulance service provider or a physician for all of the following purposes:

A. Obtaining a supply of naloxone or another opioid antagonist; and

B. Allowing law enforcement officers and fire fighters to obtain the training necessary to safely and properly administer naloxone or another opioid antagonist to individuals who are undergoing or who are believed to be undergoing an opioid-related drug overdose.

6. An emergency medical technician or service provider, certified first responder, law enforcement officer, fire fighter, physician, physician assistant, advanced practice nurse, or pharmacist who, reasonably believing another person to be undergoing an opioid-related drug overdose, administers naloxone or another opioid antagonist to that person shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for any outcomes resulting from the administration of the opioid antagonist to that person, if the person so administering is acting pursuant to any training required by this title.

7. A pharmacist authorized to issue prescription orders may do any of the following:

A. Prescribe an opioid antagonist to a person in a position to assist an individual at risk of undergoing an opioid-related drug overdose and may deliver the opioid antagonist to that person. A prescription order under this subdivision need not specify the name and address of the individual to whom the opioid antagonist will be administered, but shall instead specify the name of the person to whom the opioid antagonist is prescribed.

B. Issue a standing order to one (1) or more persons authorizing the dispensing of an opioid antagonist.

8.  A physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse who prescribes or delivers an opioid antagonist shall ensure that the person to whom the opioid antagonist is prescribed has or has the capacity to provide the knowledge and training necessary to safely administer the opioid antagonist to an individual undergoing an opioid-related overdose and that the person demonstrates the capacity to ensure that any individual to whom the person further delivers the opioid antagonist has or receives that knowledge and training.

9. A physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse who, acting in good faith, prescribes or delivers an opioid antagonist in accordance with this title or who, acting in good faith, otherwise lawfully prescribes or dispenses an opioid antagonist, shall be immune from criminal or civil liability and may not be subject to professional discipline for any outcomes resulting from prescribing, delivering, or dispensing the opioid antagonist.

10.  A pharmacist may, upon and in accordance with the prescription order of a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse authorized to issue prescription orders that complies with law, deliver an opioid antagonist to a person specified in the prescription order and may, upon and in accordance with the standing order of a physician, physician assistant, or advanced practice nurse that complies with the law, deliver an opioid antagonist to an individual in accordance with the order.  The pharmacist shall provide a consultation in accordance with law.

12. A pharmacist who, acting in good faith, delivers an opioid antagonist in accordance with this title, or who, acting in good faith, otherwise lawfully dispenses an opioid antagonist, shall be immune from criminal or civil liability and may not be subject to professional discipline under for any outcomes resulting from delivering or dispensing the opioid antagonist.

13.  Any person may possess an opioid antagonist. Any person may deliver or dispense an opioid antagonist. Subject to law, any person who, acting in good faith, delivers or dispenses an opioid antagonist to another person, or who, reasonably believing another person to be undergoing an opioid-related drug overdose, administers an opioid antagonist to that person shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for any outcomes resulting from delivering, dispensing, or administering the opioid antagonist.

14. A program is hereby created for the purpose of funding grants to the following groups to purchase opioid antagonists and offer training in the use and administration of opioid antagonists:

A. Public Hospitals and free healthcare clinics;

B. Public and Private ambulance service providers;

C. Public and Private fire departments;

D. Police Departments and Sheriff offices;

E. Homeless Shelters; and

F. Other non-profit organizations that provide emergency medical services.

15. As a condition of accepting funds under this progran, all recipients must record the number of times opioid antagonists are administered and shall submit such records to the Southern Region annually.

16. Funding for the program shall come from the Addiction Services Trust Fund whuch shall receive dedicated revenue from a tax imposed on wholesale opioid distributors and mail-order pharmacies at a rate of 5 cents ($0.05) per dose manufactured or imported into the Southern Region.

17. The Opiate Overdose Prevention Act id hereby repealed.


TITLE IV: RIGHT TO TRY

1. Neither the Southern Region nor any State or locality therein shall take any action to prohibit or restrict:

A. The production, manufacture, distribution, prescribing, or dispensing of an experimental drug, biological drug product, or medical device that is intended to treat a patient who has been diagnosed with a terminal illness; and is authorized by, and in accordance with, Regional law; and

B. The possession or use of an experimental drug biological product, or device: that is described herein and (ii) of and/or which the patient has received a certification from a physician, who is in good standing with the physician's certifying organization or board, that the patient has exhausted, or otherwise does not meet qualifying criteria to receive, any other available treatment options.

TITLE V: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect thirty (30) days after passage.
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« Reply #236 on: June 25, 2022, 08:17:20 AM »

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CHINESE EXCHANGE PROGRAMS RESOLUTION

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Whereas, the People's Republic of China (PRC) is a Communist dictatorship with a history of violent conflict against Atlasia; and

Whereas, the PRC has used colleges and universities to spy upon and sow propaganda in Atlasia; and

Whereas, the PRC is attempting to dominate the island nation of Taiwan, hereafter referred to as the Republic of China (ROC), which is an important ally and trade partner of Atlasia;

Now therefore, be it resolved that the Southern Region encourages colleges, universities, and institutes of higher education to relocate Chinese language and cultural exchange programs from the PRC to the ROC to advance Atlasian national security interests, strengthen ties between our two democracies, and promote a positive learning environment to enhance comprehensive Mandarin language education for Atlasian students.

This resolution shall take effect immediately.
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« Reply #237 on: June 25, 2022, 08:25:38 AM »

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CHEVRON DEFERENCE IS BAD ACT

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1. When interpreting a Regional or State statute, regulation, or other sub-regulatory document, a court or an officer hearing an administrative action in the Southern Region may not defer to a Regional or State agency’s interpretation of the statute, regulation, or other sub-regulatory document, and must instead interpret its meaning and effect de novo.

2. In actions brought by or against Regional or State agencies, after applying all customary tools of interpretation, the court or hearing officer must exercise any remaining doubt in favor of a reasonable interpretation which limits agency power and maximizes individual liberty.

 3. This act shall take effect thirty (30) days after passage.
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« Reply #238 on: June 25, 2022, 08:30:19 AM »

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GO PHISH ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINITIONS

1. As used in this Act:

A. Entity includes corporations, business trusts, estates, partnerships, limited partnerships, limited liability partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, organizations, joint ventures, governments, governmental subdivisions, agencies, or instrumentalities, or any other legal entity, whether for profit or not-for-profit.

B. Individual means a natural person.

C. Identifying information means any information that can be used to access an individual’s financial accounts or to obtain goods and services, including, but not limited to: address, birth date, Social Security number, driver’s license number, non-driver governmental identification number, telephone number, bank account number, student identification, credit or debit card number, personal identification number, unique biometric data, employee or payroll number, automated or electronic signature, computer image, photograph, screen name or password.  The term does not include information that is lawfully obtained from publicly available information, or from Federal, Regional, State, or local government records lawfully made available to the general public.

D. False pretenses means the representation of a fact or circumstance which is not true and is calculated to mislead.

E. Phishing means making any communication under false pretenses purporting to be by or on behalf of a legitimate business or entity, without the authority or approval of the business or entity to induce, request, or solicit any person to provide identifying information or property.

F. Pharming means creating or operating a webpage that represents itself as belonging to or being associated with a legitimate business or entity, without the authority or approval of such business or entity, and that may induce any user of the Internet to provide identifying information or property; or altering a setting on a user’s computer or similar device or software program through which the user may search the Internet and thereby causes any user of the Internet to view a communication that represents itself as belonging to or being associated with a legitimate business, which message has been created or is operated without the authority or approval of such legitimate business and induces, requests or solicits any user of the Internet to provide identifying information or property.

G. Web page means a location that has a single uniform resource locator (URL) with respect to the World Wide Web or another location that can be accessed on the Internet.


TITLE II: PHISHING AND PHARMING

1. It shall be a felony punishable by imprisonment for no more than five (5) years, a fine of no more than $25,000.00, and restitution, for any person to engage in phishing or pharming in the Southern Region.

2. No Internet registrar or Internet service provider may be held liable under any provision of the laws of this Region or of any State or political subdivision in this Region for removing or disabling access to an Internet domain name controlled or operated by such registrar or by such provider or to content that resides on an Internet website or other online location controlled or operated by such provider and that such provider believes in good faith is used to engage in a violation of this act.

3. The following persons may bring a civil action against a person who violates this act:

A. an Internet service provider who is adversely affected by the violation;

B. an owner of a web page, computer server, or a trademark that is used without authorization in the violation; or

C. the Attorney General.

4. A person permitted to bring a civil action may obtain either actual damages for a violation of this Act or a civil penalty not to exceed $150,000 per violation of this act.

5. A violation of this Act by a state-chartered or licensed financial institution shall be enforceable exclusively by the financial institution’s primary regulator.

6. This Act shall apply to the discovery of phishing or pharming incident that occurs on or after the effective date of this section. This act does not apply to a telecommunications provider’s or Internet service provider’s good faith transmission or routing of, or intermediate temporary storing or caching of, identifying information.


TITLE III: ENACTMENT

1.This act shall take effect thirty (30) days after the date of passage.
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« Reply #239 on: June 25, 2022, 08:44:01 AM »

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DON’T BE A HACK ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINITIONS

1. As used in this Act:

A.  Cause to be copied means to distribute or transfer computer software, or any component thereof.  Such term shall not include providing transmission, routing, provision of intermediate temporary storage, or caching of software; a storage or hosting medium, such as a compact disk, web site, or computer server through which the software was distributed by a third party; or an information location tool, such as a directory, index, reference, pointer, or hypertext link, through which the user of the computer located the software.

B. Computer software means a sequence of instructions written in any programming language that is executed on a computer.  Computer software does not include a data component of a web page that is not executable independently of the web page.

C.  Computer virus means a computer program or other set of instructions that is designed to degrade the performance of or disable a computer or computer network and is designed to have the ability to replicate itself on other computers or computer networks without the authorization of the owners of those computers or computer networks.

D. Damage means any significant impairment to the integrity or availability of data, software, a system, or information.

E.  Execute, when used with respect to computer software, means the performance of the functions or the carrying out of the instructions of the computer software.

F.  Intentionally deceptive means an intentionally and materially false or fraudulent statement; a statement or description that intentionally omits or misrepresents material information in order to deceive an owner or operator of a computer; or an intentional and material failure to provide a notice to an owner or operator regarding the installation or execution of computer software for the purpose of deceiving the owner or operator.

G.  Internet means the global information system that is logically linked together by a globally unique address space based on the internet protocol (IP), or its subsequent extensions, and that is able to support communications using the transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) suite, or its subsequent extensions, or other IP-compatible protocols, and that provides, uses, or makes accessible, either publicly or privately, high-level services layered on the communications and related infrastructure described in this subsection.

Owner or operator means the owner or lessee of a computer, or a person using such computer with the owner or lessee’s authorization, but does not include a person who owned a computer prior to the first retail sale of the computer.

I.  Message means a graphical or text communication presented to an authorized user of a computer.

J.  Personally identifiable information means any of the following information if it allows the entity holding the information to identify the owner or operator of a computer: The first name or first initial in combination with the last name; a home or other physical address including street name; personal identification code in conjunction with a password required to access an identified account, other than a password, personal identification number or other identification number transmitted by an authorized user to the issuer of the account or its agent; social security number, tax identification number, driver’s license number, passport number, or any other government-issued identification number; or an account balance, overdraft history, or payment history that personally identifies an owner or operator of a computer.


TITLE II: CRIMINAL USE OF SOFTWARE

1. It shall be a felony punishable by imprisonment for no more than five (5) years, a fine of no more than $25,000.00, and restitution, for any person who is not an owner or operator of a computer to cause computer software to be copied on such computer knowingly or with conscious avoidance of actual knowledge or willfully, and to use such software to do any of the following:

A.  Modify, through intentionally deceptive means, settings of a computer that control any of the following:  The web page that appears when an owner or operator launches an Internet browser or similar computer software used to access and navigate the Internet; he default provider or web proxy that an owner or operator uses to access or search the Internet; or an owner’s or an operator’s list of bookmarks used to access web pages.

B.  Collect, through intentionally deceptive means, personally identifiable information through any of the following means: the use of a keystroke-logging function that records all or substantially all keystrokes made by an owner or operator of a computer and transfers that information from the computer to another person; in a manner that correlates personally identifiable information with data regarding all or substantially all of the Web sites visited by an owner or operator, other than Web sites operated by the person providing such software, if the computer software was installed in a manner designed to conceal from all authorized users of the computer the fact that the software is being installed; or by extracting from the hard drive of an owner’s or an operator’s computer, an owner’s or an operator’s social security number, tax identification number, driver’s license number, passport number, any other government-issued identification number, account balances, or overdraft history for a purpose unrelated to any of the purposes of the software or service described to an authorized user.

C.  Prevent, through intentionally deceptive means, an owner’s or an operator’s reasonable efforts to block the installation of or execution of, or to disable, computer software by causing computer software that the owner or operator has properly removed or disabled to automatically reinstall or reactivate on the computer without the authorization of an authorized user.

D.  Intentionally misrepresent that computer software will be uninstalled or disabled by an owner’s or an operator’s action.

E.  Through intentionally deceptive means, remove, disable, or render inoperative security, antispyware, or antivirus computer software installed on an owner’s or an operator’s computer.

F.  Enable use of an owner’s or an operator’s computer to do any of the following: accessing or using a modem or Internet service for the purpose of causing damage to an owner’s or an operator’s computer or causing an owner or operator , or a third party affected by such conduct to incur financial charges for a service that the owner or operator did not authorize; opening multiple, sequential, stand-alone messages in an owner’s or an operator’s computer without the authorization of an owner or operator and with knowledge that a reasonable computer user could not close the messages without turning off the computer or closing the software application in which the messages appear; provided that this paragraph shall not apply to communications originated by the computer’s operating system, originated by a software application that the user chooses to activate, originated by a service provider that the user chooses to use, or presented for any of the purposes described herein; or transmitting or relaying commercial electronic mail or a computer virus from the computer, where the transmission or relaying is initiated by a person other than the authorized user and without the authorization of an authorized user.

G.  Modify any of the following settings related the computer’s access to, or use of, the Internet: settings that protect information about an owner or operator for the purpose of taking personally identifiable information of the owner or operator; security settings for the purpose of causing damage to a computer; or settings that protect the computer from the uses identified herein

H.  Prevent, without the authorization of an owner or operator, an owner’s or an operator’s reasonable efforts to block the installation of, or to disable, computer software by doing any of the following: presenting the owner or operator with an option to decline installation of computer software with knowledge that, when the option is selected by the authorized user, the installation nevertheless proceeds; falsely representing that computer software has been disabled; requiring in an intentionally deceptive manner the user to access the Internet to remove the software with knowledge or reckless disregard of the fact that the software frequently operates in a manner that prevents the user from accessing the Internet; changing the name, location or other designation information of the software for the purpose of preventing an authorized user from locating the software to remove it; using randomized or intentionally deceptive filenames, directory folders, formats, or registry entries for the purpose of avoiding detection and removal of the software by an authorized user; causing the installation of software in a particular computer directory or computer memory for the purpose of evading authorized users’ attempts to remove the software from the computer; or requiring, without the authority of the owner of the computer, that an authorized user obtain a special code or download software from a third party to uninstall the software.


TITLE III: OTHER CRIMINAL ACTS

1. It shall be a felony punishable by imprisonment for no more than five (5) years, a fine of no more than $25,000.00, and restitution, for any person who is not an owner or operator of a computer to do any of the following with regard to the computer:

A.  Induce an owner or operator to install a computer software component onto the owner’s or the operator’s computer by intentionally misrepresenting that installing computer software is necessary for security or privacy reasons or in order to open, view, or play a particular type of content; or

B.  Using intentionally deceptive means to cause the execution of a computer software component with the intent of causing the computer to use such component in a manner that violates any other provision of this chapter.


TITLE IV: EXCEPTIONS

1. Titles 2 and 3 shall not apply to the monitoring of, or interaction with, an owner’s or an operator’s Internet or other network connection, service, or computer, by a telecommunications carrier, cable operator, computer hardware or software provider, or provider of information service or interactive computer service for network or computer security purposes, diagnostics, technical support, maintenance, repair, network management, authorized updates of computer software or system firmware, authorized remote system management, or detection or prevention of the unauthorized use of or fraudulent or other illegal activities in connection with a network, service, or computer software, including scanning for and removing computer software prescribed under this act.


TITLE V: CIVIL REMEDIES

1.  The attorney general, an Internet service provider, or software company that expends resources in good faith assisting authorized users harmed by a violation of this act, or a trademark owner whose mark is used to deceive authorized users in violation of this act,  may bring a civil action against a person who violates any provision of this chapter to recover actual damages, liquidated damages of at least $10,000.00 per violation of this act, not to exceed one million dollars for a pattern or practice of such violations, attorney fees, and costs.

2.  The court may award treble damages if the court determines that the defendant committed the violation willfully and knowingly.

3.  The court may reduce liquidated damages recoverable under this Title, to a minimum of $100.00, not to exceed $100,000.00 for each violation if the court finds that the defendant established and implemented practices and procedures reasonably designed to prevent a violation of this act.

4. In the case of a violation of this act that causes a telecommunications carrier or provider of voice over internet protocol (VOIP) service to incur costs for the origination, transport, or termination of a call triggered using the modem or Internet-capable device of a customer of such telecommunications carrier or provider as a result of such violation, the telecommunications carrier may bring a civil action against the violator to recover any or all of the following:

A. the charges such carrier or provider is obligated to pay to another carrier or to an information service provider as a result of the violation, including but not limited to charges for the origination, transport or termination of the call;

B. costs of handling customer inquiries or complaints with respect to amounts billed for such calls;

C. legal costs and reasonable attorneys’ fee; and

D. an order to enjoin the violation.

5. For purposes of a civil action under sections (1), (2) and (3) of this title, any single action or conduct that violates more than one (1) provision of this act shall be considered multiple violations based on the number of such provisions violated.

6. No provider of computer software or of an interactive computer service may be held liable for identifying, naming, removing, disabling, or otherwise affecting a computer program through any action voluntarily undertaken, or service provided, where the provider:

A. Intends to identify accurately, prevent the installation or execution of, remove, or disable another computer program on a computer of a customer of such provider; and

B. Reasonably believes the computer program exhibits behavior that violates this act; and

C. Notifies the authorized user and obtains clear and conspicuous consent before undertaking such action or providing such service.

7. A provider of computer software or interactive computer service is entitled to protection under this title only if such provider:

A. Has established internal practices and procedures to evaluate computer programs reasonably designed to determine whether or not a computer program exhibits behavior that violates this act; and

B. Has established a process for managing disputes and inquiries regarding misclassification or false positive identifications of computer programs.

8. Nothing in this section is intended to limit the ability of the Attorney General, or a prosecutor to bring an action against a provider of computer software or of an interactive computer service.


TITLE VI: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect sixty (60) days after the date of passage.
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« Reply #240 on: June 25, 2022, 09:24:16 AM »

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DON’T SPAM ME BRO ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINITIONS

1. As used in this Act:

A. Commercial electronic mail message means an electronic message sent primarily for the purpose of commercial advertisement or promotion of a commercial product, a commercial service, the content on an Internet website, or a website operated for a commercial purpose. Commercial electronic mail message shall not mean campaign messages, materials, or get out the vote attempts relating to an election in Atlasia.

B. Domain name means any alphanumeric designation that is registered with or assigned by a domain name registrar, domain name registry, or other domain name registration authority as part of an electronic mail address on the Internet.

C. Electronic mail service provider means any person, including an Internet service provider, that is an intermediary in sending and receiving electronic mail and that provides to the public the ability to send or receive electronic mail to or from an electronic mail account or online user account.

D. Header information means the source, destination, and routing information attached to an electronic mail message, including the originating domain name and originating electronic mails, and any other information that appears in the line identifying or purporting to identify a person initiating the message, and technical information that authenticates the sender of an electronic mail message for network security or network management purposes.

E. The term initiate, when used with respect to a commercial electronic mail message, means to originate or transmit the message or to procure the origination or transmission of the message and does not include actions that constitute routine conveyances of such message.

F. Internet means the international computer network of both federal and nonfederal interoperable packet switched data networks.

G. Internet protocol address means the string of numbers by which a location on the Internet is identified by routers or other computers connected to the Internet.

H. Materially falsified means altered or concealed in a manner that would impair the ability of one (1) of the following to identify, locate, or respond to a person who initiated an electronic mail message or to investigate an alleged violation of this act:

i. A recipient of the message;

ii. An Internet access service processing the message on behalf of a recipient;

iii. A person alleging a violation of this section; or

iv.  A law enforcement agency.

I. Multiple means:

i.  More than ten (10) commercial electronic mail messages during a 24-hour period;

ii. More than one hundred (100) commercial electronic mail messages during a 30-day period; or

iii. More than 1,000 commercial electronic mail message during a 1-year period.

J. Protected computer means a computer used in intrastate or interstate communication within the Southern Region.

K. Routine conveyance means the transmission, routing, relaying, handling, or storing, through an automatic technical process, of an electronic mail message for which another person has identified the recipients or provided the recipients’ addresses.


TITLE II: ILLEGAL SPAM

1. A person may not conspire to or knowingly:

A. Use a protected computer of another to relay or retransmit multiple commercial electronic mail messages with the intent to deceive or mislead recipients or an electronic mail service provider as to the origin of the message;

B. Materially falsify header information in multiple commercial electronic mail messages and intentionally initiate the transmission of the messages;

C. Register, using information that materially falsifies the identity of the actual registrant, for ten (10) or more electronic mail accounts or on-line user accounts of two (2) or more domain names and intentionally initiate the transmission of multiple commercial electronic mail messages from one or any combination of accounts or domain names;

D. Falsely represent the right to use five (5) or more Internet protocol addresses and intentionally initiate the transmission of multiple commercial electronic mail messages from the Internet protocol addresses;

E. Access a protected computer of another without authorization, and intentionally initiate the transmission of multiple electronic mail advertisements from or through the protected computer;

F. Violate item (A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this section by providing or selecting addresses to which a message was transmitted, knowing that the electronic mail addresses of the recipients were obtained using an automated means from an Internet website or proprietary online service operated by another person, and the website or online service included, at the time the addresses were obtained, a notice stating that the operator of the website or online service will not transfer addresses maintained by the website or online service to any other party for the purposes of initiating or enabling others to initiate electronic mail messages; or

G. Violate item (A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this section by providing or selecting electronic mail addresses of recipients obtained using an automated means that generates possible electronic mail addresses by combining names, letters, or numbers into numerous permutations.


TITLE III: PENALTIES

1. A person who violates title II, section 1, item (A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this act is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than three (3) years or a fine not exceeding $10,000, or both.

2. A person who violates title II, section 1, item (A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this act involving the transmission of more than 250 commercial electronic mail messages during a 24-hour period, 2,500 commercial electronic mail messages during any 30-day period, or 25,000 commercial electronic mail messages during any 1-year period is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than five (5) years or a fine not exceeding $25,000 or both.

3. A person who violates title II, section 1, item (C) or (D) of this act involving twenty (20) or more electronic mail accounts or ten (10) or more domain names and intentionally initiates the transmission of multiple commercial electronic mail messages from the accounts or using the domain names is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than five (5) years or a fine not exceeding $25,000 or both.

4. A person who violates title II, section 1, item (A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this act that causes a loss of $500 or more during any 1-year period is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than five (5) years or a fine not exceeding $25,000 or both as well as restitution.

5. A person who violates title II, section 1, item (A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this act in concert with three (3) or more other persons as the leader or organizer of the action that constitutes the violation is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than five (5) years or a fine not exceeding $25,000 or both.

6. A person who violates title II, section 1, item (A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this act in furtherance of a felony, or who has previously been convicted of an offense under the laws of this Region, another Region, a State, or under any federal law involving the transmission of multiple commercial electronic mail messages is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than ten (10) years or a fine not exceeding $50,000 or both.

7. A person who violates title II, section 1, item (F) or (G) of this act is guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than two (2) years or a fine not exceeding $5,000, or both.

8. In addition to any other sentence authorized by law, the court may direct that a person convicted of a violation of this act forfeit to the Southern Region:

A. Any moneys and other income, including all proceeds earned but not yet received by a defendant from a third party as a result of the defendant’s violation of this section; and

B. All computer equipment, computer software, and personal property used in connection with a violation of this act known by the owner to have been used in violation of this act.


TITLE IV: CIVIL REMEDIES

1. An action brought under this title shall be commenced within two (2) years after the commission of the act.

2. The Attorney General may institute a civil action against a person who violates this section to recover a civil penalty not exceeding:

A. $25,000 per day of violation; or
B. Not less than five dollars ($5.00) nor more than ten dollars ($10.00) per commercial electronic mail message initiated in violation of this section. For any violation of this Act, the amount determined hereunder shall not exceed $2,000,000.00.

3. The Attorney General may seek an injunction in a civil action to prohibit a person who has engaged in or is engaged in a violation of this act from engaging in the violation.

4. The Attorney General may also enforce criminal violations of this act.

5. Nothing in this act shall be construed to have any effect on the lawfulness of the adoption, implementation, or enforcement by an electronic mail service provider of a policy of declining to transmit, route, relay, handle, or store certain types of electronic mail messages under any other provision of law.


TITLE V: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect sixty (60) days after the date of enactment.
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« Reply #241 on: June 25, 2022, 09:48:14 AM »

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PUBLIC SOFTWARE PROCUREMENT ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINITIONS

1. As used in this title:

A. Public Agencies means a Regional or State government agency, department, commission, council, board, bureau, committee, institution, college, university, technical school, government corporation, or other establishment of the executive, legislative or judicial branches.  Public Agencies also include interstate or regional entities participating in multi-state or multi-jurisdictional procurements. Public Agencies also include local political subdivisions such as counties, municipalities, school districts, or public service districts.

B. Procurement means buying, purchasing, renting, leasing, licensing, or otherwise acquiring any goods or services. It also includes all functions that pertain to the obtaining of any goods or services, including description of requirements, selection and solicitation of sources, preparation and award of contracts, installation, maintenance, and all phases of contract administration.

C. Computer Software means a set of Computer Programs, procedures and associated documentation concerned with computer data or with the operation of a computer, Computer Program, or Computer Network.

D. Computer Program means an ordered set of data representing coded instructions or statements that, when executed by a computer, causes the computer to perform one or more computer operations.

E. Software Source Code means pre-compiled, human-readable versions of a Computer Program.

F. Computer Network means a set of related, remotely connected devices and any communications facilities, including multiple computers with the capability to exchange data via communications facilities.

G. Total Cost of Ownership means the sum of all costs borne by the Public Agency during the useful life of the software, including costs for software acquisition, installation, worker training, conversion or loading of existing data, interface and integration with related information systems, and long-term costs for software maintenance, upgrades, and technical support.


TITLE II: PUBLIC SOFTWARE PROCUREMENT

1. Decisions by Public Agencies regarding the requisition, procurement, and installation of Computer Software shall be based upon performance and value criteria, including quality, functionality, security, reliability, interoperability, and Total Cost of Ownership.

2. Decisions by Public Agencies regarding the requisition, procurement, and installation of Computer Software must be neutral with respect to:

A. whether such Computer Software is provided by a for-profit entity or a non-profit entity; and

B. the licensing model under which such Computer Software is provided.

3. Nothing in this Act shall preclude Public Agencies from considering the effect of specific licensing terms in software procurement decisions, including licensing terms that govern the availability of Software Source Code, rights and restrictions regarding software modification, redistribution, warranties, security, and intellectual property indemnification.

4. Public Agencies and public employees must conform with the Region’s software procurement and acquisition rules regardless of the licensing model under which software is provided.


TITLE III: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect ninety (90) days after passage.
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« Reply #242 on: June 25, 2022, 10:09:09 AM »

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BOUNTY LAW ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINITIONS

1. As used in this act:

A. Bail fugitive means a defendant in a pending criminal case who has been released from custody under a financially secured appearance, cash, or other bond and has had that bond declared forfeited, or a defendant in a pending criminal case who has violated a bond condition whereby apprehension and reincarceration are permitted.

B. Bounty Hunter means a person who is provided written authorization by the bail or depositor of bail, and is contracted to investigate, surveil, locate, and arrest a bail fugitive for surrender to the appropriate court, jail, or police department, and any person who is employed to assist a bail or depositor of bail to investigate, surveil, locate, and arrest a bail fugitive for surrender to the appropriate court, jail, or police department.

C. Depositor of bail means a person or entity who has deposited money or bonds to secure the release of a person charged with a crime or offense.


TITLE II: BAIL FUGITIVES

1.  No person, other than a certified law enforcement officer, shall be authorized to apprehend, detain, or arrest a bail fugitive unless that person is a bounty hunter, a depositor of bail, or a private investigator

2. A bounty hunter who contracts his or her services to another bail agent or surety and who engages in the arrest of a defendant shall comply with the following requirements:

A. The person shall be at least 18 years of age;

B. The person shall have completed an appropriate training course on the power of arrest certified by law enforcement. Completion of the course shall be for educational purposes only and not intended to confer the power of arrest of a peace office or public officer, or agent of any federal, Regional, State, or local government, unless the person is so employed by a governmental agency; and

C. The person shall not have been convicted of a violent felony, or of any offense in which a dangerous weapon was used.

3. Upon completion of any course or training program required by this act, an individual authorized to apprehend a bail fugitive shall carry certificates of completion with him or her at all times in the course of performing his or her duties under this act.

4. In performing a bail fugitive apprehension, an individual authorized to apprehend a bail fugitive shall comply with all laws applicable to that apprehension.

5. Before apprehending a bail fugitive, an individual authorized to apprehend a bail fugitive shall have in his or her possession proper documentation of authority to apprehend issued by the bail or depositor of bail. The authority to apprehend document shall include the following: the name of the individual and any fictitious name, if applicable; the address of the principal office of the individual; and the name and principal business address of the bail agency, surety company, or other party contracting with the individual to apprehend a bail fugitive.

6. An individual authorized to apprehend a bail fugitive shall not represent himself or herself in any manner as being a sworn law enforcement officer, nor shall he or she wear any badge or uniform that represents himself or herself as belonging to any part or department of a federal, Regional, State, or local government.

7. Any person who violates this act, or who conspires with another person to violate this act, or who hires an individual to apprehend a bail fugitive, knowing that the individual is not authorized to apprehend a bail fugitive, is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by a fine of no more than $10,000.00.


TITLE III: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect ninety (90) days after passage.
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« Reply #243 on: June 25, 2022, 12:23:03 PM »

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UNIFORM PRISON BEST PRACTICES ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINTIONS

1. For purposes of this act:

A. Benefit means any plea bargain, bail consideration, reduction or modification of sentence, or any other leniency, immunity, financial payment, reward, or amelioration of current or future conditions of incarceration in return for, or in connection with, the informant’s participation in any information-gathering activity, investigation, or operation, or in return for, or in connection with, the informant’s testimony in the criminal proceeding in which the prosecutor intends to call him or her as a witness.

B. Body cavity searches means physically invasive searches on inmates, conducted by facility employees in search of contraband.

C. Flight risk means an inmate who has shown the desire to escape from lawful imprisonment.

D. In-custody informant means a person, other than a co-defendant, percipient witness, accomplice, or coconspirator, who provides testimony or information for use in the investigation or prosecution of a suspect or defendant based upon statements made by the suspect or defendant while both were housed within a jail, prison, or correctional institution.

E. indigent means an inmate who has less than an average of $50.00 in their prison account.

F. Postpartum recovery means the eight-week period, or longer as determined by the healthcare professional responsible for the health and safety of the prisoner, following childbirth.

G. Restraints means any physical or mechanical device used to restrict or control the movement of a prisoner’s body, limbs, or both.

H. Restrictive housing means any type of detention that involves removal from the general inmate population, whether voluntary or involuntary, and the inability to leave the room or cell for the vast majority of the day.

I. State of undress means a state where a female is partially or fully naked, either in the shower, toilet areas, a medical examination room, or having a body cavity search conducted.

J. wireless communications service means commercial mobile service or personal wireless services as such terms are defined in section 332 of the Federal Communications Act of 1934 (47 U.S.C. 332).

K. wireless handset means a device utilized by a user of wireless communications service in connection with such service. This shall include but not be limited to cellular telephones and components or accessories thereof.


TITLE II: PROHIBITION ON WIRELESS HANDSETS

1. It shall be a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for no more than one (1) year or a fine of no more than $5,000.00, or both, to provide or attempt to provide to an inmate of a jail, prison, or correctional facility a wireless handset.

2. It shall be a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for no more than one (1) year or a fine of no more than $5,000.00, or both, for an inmate of a jail, prison, or correctional facility to possess, obtain, or attempts to obtain, a wireless handset. A jail, prison, or correctional facility, in lieu of criminal enforcement may instead opt to place the inmate in restrictive housing for no more than six (6) months.
 

TITLE III: JAIL SNITCHES

1. The Southern Attorney General and the Attorney General of each State in the Southern Region shall track:

A.   The use of testimony or information provided to the government by an in-custody informant against a suspect or defendant’s interest while the in-custody informant was imprisoned or confined in the same correctional facility as the suspect or defendant.

B.  Any benefits offered or provided to an in-custody informant in exchange for testimony or information about a suspect or defendant.

2. Prior to any prosecution, the Southern Attorney General and the Attorney General of each State in the Southern Region shall disclose to the defense in a timely manner before any evidentiary hearing or trial any information in the possession, custody, or control of the government that is relevant to the in-custody informant’s credibility, including:

A. Benefits that the offering party has made or will make in the future to the in-custody informant;

B. The substance, time, and place of any statement allegedly given by the suspect or defendant to the in-custody informant, and the substance, time, and place of any statement given by the in-custody informant to law enforcement implicating the suspect or defendant in the crime charged;

C. The complete criminal history of the in-custody informant, including any charges that were dismissed or reduced as part of a plea bargain;

D. All other cases in which the in-custody informant offered to provide information to or testify for the state in exchange for a benefit, and the specific benefits offered or received in such cases; and

E. Whether the informant modified or recanted his or her testimony at any time.

3. Prior to any prosecution, the Southern Attorney General and the Attorney General of each State in the Southern Region shall timely disclose its intent to introduce the testimony of an in-custody informant. The same procedures for introducing the testimony of other fact witnesses that are applicable in the jurisdiction shall apply to such testimony.

4. If the in-custody informant testifies, the prosecutor or defense counsel may share the information disclosed pursuant to this act during direct or cross-examination, respectively. If a written statement from the in-custody informant is admitted for a reason such as them being unavailable under the rules of evidence, this information shall be included with the written statement.

5. The Southern Attorney General and the Attorney General of each State in the Southern Region shall, to the best of their abilities, refrain from disclosing the name or identity of the in-custody informant, unless such informant is required to testify in-person under the rules of evidence.


TITLE IV: PREGNANT PRISONERS

1. Upon notification and/or diagnosis of an inmate’s pregnancy, and for the duration of the pregnancy, and for sixty (60) days following the inmate’s delivery, no jail, prison, or correctional facility shall apply the following restraints on the pregnant inmate unless a correctional facility employee has a reasonable belief that the inmate will harm herself, the unborn baby, or any other person, or poses a substantial flight risk:

A. Leg restraints

B. Handcuffs or other wrist restraints, except to restrain the inmate’s wrists in front of her.

C. No restraints connected to other inmates.

2. No restraints shall be used on any pregnant inmate while in labor or during delivery unless a correctional facility employee has a reasonable belief that the inmate will harm herself, the unborn baby, or any other person, or pose a substantial flight risk. In such case, the correctional facility employee ordering use of restraints on any female inmate while in labor or during delivery shall submit a written report to the warden of the facility within 24 hours following the use of restraints, containing the justification for restraining the female inmate during labor and delivery.
 
3. No correctional facility employee other than a certified healthcare professional shall conduct invasive body cavity searches of pregnant inmates unless the correctional facility employee has a reasonable belief that the female inmate is concealing contraband. In such case, the correctional facility employee shall submit a written report to the warden of the facility within 24 hours following the invasive search, containing the justification for the invasive search and what contraband, if any, was recovered.

4. Any jail, prison, or correctional facility shall ensure that pregnant inmates be provided sufficient food and dietary supplements as ordered by a physician, physician staff member, or a facility nutritionist to meet general accepted prenatal nutritional guidelines for pregnant women.

5. No jail, prison, or correctional facility shall place any pregnant inmate, or any female inmate who has given birth within the previous sixty (60) days, in restrictive housing unless a correctional facility employee has a reasonable belief that the inmate will harm herself, the unborn baby, or any other person, or poses a substantial flight risk. In such case, the correctional facility employee authorizing the placement of the inmate in restrictive housing shall submit a written report to the warden of the facility within 24 hours following the transfer, containing the justification for confining the female inmate in restrictive housing.

6. No jail, prison, or correctional facility shall assign any pregnant inmate to any bed that is elevated more than three (3) feet from the floor of the facility.

7. The warden of any jail, prison, or correctional facility shall compile a monthly summary of all written reports received pursuant to this title and submit such report to the Southern Attorney General monthly.

8. No restraints shall be used on any female inmate who has given birth within the last sixty (60) days and is in postpartum recovery, unless a correctional facility employee has a reasonable belief that the female inmate will harm herself, her newborn baby, or any other person, or poses a substantial flight risk. In such case, the facility employee ordering use of restraints on any inmate while in postpartum recovery shall submit a written report to the warden of the facility within 24 hours following the use of restraints, containing the justification for restraining the female inmate during postpartum recovery.

9. Following the delivery of a newborn, by an inmate, any jail, prison, or correctional facility shall permit the newborn to remain with the mother for seven (7) days unless the medical provider has a reasonable belief that remaining with the mother poses a health or safety risk to the newborn baby. During that time, the jail, prison, or correctional facility shall make available the necessary nutritional and hygiene products, including but not limited to diapers, to care for the newborn baby. If the female inmate qualifies as indigent, such products shall be provided without cost to the inmate.

TITLE V: FAMILY VISITATION

1. To the greatest extent practicable, after accounting for security and capacity factors, any court sentencing an inmate to a term of imprisonment shall place inmates who are parents of minor children within 250 miles of their permanent address of record.

2. Each jail, prison, and correctional facility shall promulgate regulations authorizing visitation of inmates who are parents of minor children with low or minimum-security classifications by minor dependents, with the minimum following requirements:

A. Such regulations shall provide opportunities for dependent children under the age of eighteen (18) to visit their incarcerated parent at least twice per week unless a correctional facility employee has a reasonable belief that the dependent child may be harmed during visitation, or poses a security risk due to a gang affiliation, prior conviction, or past violation of facility contraband policy; and

B. Such regulations shall eliminate restrictions on the number of dependent children under the age of eighteen (18) that may be permitted visitation privileges.


TITLE VI: STRIP SEARCHES

1. To the greatest extent practicable, and consistent with safety and order, each jail, prison, or correctional facility shall promulgate regulations that limit inspections by male correctional officers where a female inmate is in a state of undress. Nothing in this Section shall limit the ability of a male correctional officer from conducting inspections where a female may be in a state of undress if no female correctional officers are available.

2. In such case, that a male correctional officer deems it is appropriate to conduct an inspection or search while the female inmate is in a clear state of undress in an area such as the shower, the medical examination room, toilet areas, or where a female inmate is having a body cavity search, the male correctional officer shall submit a written report to the warden of the facility within 24 hours following the inspection or search, containing the justification for a male correctional officer to inspect the female inmate while in a state of undress.


TITLE VII: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect ninety (90) days after passage.
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« Reply #244 on: June 25, 2022, 12:53:29 PM »

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STABLE CUSTODY ACT

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1. Any unemancipated minor child who is being removed from his or her custodial parent or guardian shall be placed in the least restrictive type of placement available, consistent with the best interests of the child.

2. The order for placement preference is as follows:

A. With a parent.

B. In kinship care with another member of the child’s extended family or a person who has a significant relationship with the child.  A foster parent or kinship caregiver with whom a child has resided for nine (9) months or more is a person who has a significant relationship with the child. Absent evidence to the contrary, the court may presume that continuation of the child’s placement with his or her current caregivers is in the child’s best interests.

C. In licensed family foster care.

D. In therapeutic foster care.

E. In a group home or congregate care setting.

F. In a residential treatment facility.

3. If an unemancipated minor child is taken into custody, the agency or department so taking shall conduct a diligent search for adult relatives of the child and for persons with a significant relationship to the child within thirty (30) days from the date the child was taken into custody. A diligent search shall include at a minimum:

A. Interviews with the child’s parent during the course of an investigation, while child protective services are provided, and while such child is in care;

B. Interviews with the child;

C. Interviews with identified relatives throughout the case;

D. Interviews with any other person who is likely to have information about the identity or location of the person being sought;

E. Comprehensive searches of available databases including, but not limited to, searches of employment, residence, utilities, vehicle registration, child support enforcement, law enforcement, corrections records, and any other records likely to result in identifying and locating the person being sought;

F. Appropriate inquiry during the course of hearings in the case; and

G. Any other reasonable means that are likely to identify relatives or other persons who have demonstrated an ongoing commitment to the child.

4. Any department or agency shall file with the court information regarding attempts made pursuant to identify and locate family members or persons with a significant relationship to child pursuant to this act within thirty (30) days from the date the child was removed from his or her home, or as otherwise required by the court, and at each periodic review hearing.

5. All relatives to the alleged dependent child identified in a diligent search required by this act, subject to exceptions due to family or domestic violence or other safety concerns, shall be provided with notice:

A. Specifying that an alleged dependent child has been or is being removed from his or her parental custody;

B. Explaining the options a relative has to participate in the care and placement of the alleged dependent child and any options that may be lost by failing to respond to the notice;

C. Describing the process for becoming a licensed foster family home and the additional services and supports available for children placed in approved foster homes; and

D. Describing any financial assistance for which a relative may be eligible

6. After the completion of the diligent search required by this act, any department or agency shall have a continuing duty to search for relatives or other persons who have demonstrated an ongoing commitment to a child and with whom it may be appropriate to place the alleged dependent child until such relatives or persons are found or until such child is placed for adoption unless the court excuses the department or agency from conducting a diligent search.

7. If a relative entitled to notice under this act fails, within six (6) months from the date he or she receives the required notice, to demonstrate an interest in and willingness to provide a permanent home for a child, the court may excuse the department or agency from considering the relative as a placement.

8. This act shall take effect thirty (30) days after the date of passage.
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« Reply #245 on: June 25, 2022, 02:23:03 PM »
« Edited: June 25, 2022, 02:43:35 PM by Mr. Reactionary »

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OBSCENE SEX TOY PROHIBITION ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINITIONS

1. The following definition applies to this act.

A. Obscene sex toy means:

i. a sexually explicit sculpture or object that is designed or sculpted to appear as the genitalia or sex organs of a non-human animal, including but not limited to a fictitious or mythical animal. This shall not include any equipment utilized in animal husbandry or breeding;

ii. a sex doll designed to appear as a non-human animal, including but not limited to a fictitious or mythical animal. This shall not include any equipment utilized in animal husbandry or breeding;

iii. a whip, cat-o-ninetails, riding crop, paddle, or other flagellation device designed or marketed for use in sadomasochistic abuse. This shall not include any equipment utilized in animal training or care;

iv. a chastity cage or other device designed or marketed for use in preventing the excitement, arrousal, or penetration of a person's genitalia;

v. a ball gag, muzzle, mask, or other device designed or marketed for use in preventing a person from speaking or emitting vocal sounds;

vi. an o-ring gag or other device designed or marketed for use in preventing a person from closing his or her mouth or clinching his or her jaw. This shall not include any equipment utilized in the provision of healthcare services; or

vii. a nipple clamp or other similar device designed or marketed for use in sadomasochistic abuse.


TITLE II: OBSCENE SEX TOYS

1. It shall be a felony punishable by not more than five (5) years imprisonment, a fine of not more than $10,000.00, and disgorgement of any profits, in all States and external territories of the Southern Region for any person to finance, manufacture, advertise, transport, sell, give, or possess with the intent to sell or give any obscene sex toy in the Southern Region.

2. It shall be a misdemeanor punishable by imprisonment for not more than six (6) months or a fine of not more than $1,000.00, or both, in all States and external territories of the Southern Region for any person to knowingly possess or solicit an obscene sex toy.

3. It shall be a felony punishable by imprisonment for no more than three (3) and a fine of no more than $10,000.00 in all States and external territories of the Southern Region for any person to produce, distribute, publish, sell, transmit, finance, possess with the intent to distribute, publish, sell, or transmit, or makes any attempt to produce, distribute, publish, sell, transmit, or finance an obscene item depicting or purporting to depict a person using an obscene sex toy.

4. All obscene sex toys shall be subject to lawful seizure and forfeiture.

5. Any person convicted of a felony enumerated in this act shall be required to register as a sex offender an shall be ordered to attend an appropriate treatment program or obtain psychiatric or psychological counseling.


TITLE III: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect immediately.
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #246 on: June 25, 2022, 03:47:29 PM »
« Edited: July 04, 2022, 12:55:56 PM by Mr. Reactionary »

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RESTAURANT FREEDOM ACT

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TITLE I: DEFINITIONS

1. As used in this title:

A. Consumer incentive item means any licensed media character, toy, game, trading card, contest, point accumulation, club membership, admission ticket, token, code or password for digital access, coupon, voucher, incentive, crayons, coloring placemats, or other premium, prize, or consumer product that is associated with a meal served by or acquired from a food service operation.

B. Food nutrition information includes, but is not limited to, the caloric, fat, carbohydrate, cholesterol, fiber, sugar, potassium, protein, vitamin, mineral, and sodium, and allergen content of food.  Food nutrition information also includes the designation of food as healthy or unhealthy.


TITLE II: FOOD NUTRITION INFORMATION

1. The Regional government has the sole and exclusive authority to regulate the provision of food nutrition information and consumer incentive items at food service operations. The Region may adopt rules for that purpose pursuant with Regional law.

2. The regulation of the provision of food nutrition information and consumer incentive items at food service operations and how food service operations are characterized are matters of general Regional interest that require uniform Regional regulation with respect to all aspects of the regulation of the provision of food nutrition information and consumer incentive items at food service operations in this Region.

3. Rules adopted under this title shall be applied uniformly throughout this Region.

4. No State or locality in the Southern Region shall do any of the following:

A.  Enact, adopt, or continue in effect local legislation relating to the provision or non-provision of food nutrition information or consumer incentive items at food service operations;

B. Condition any license, permit, or regulatory approval upon the provision or non-provision of food nutrition information or consumer incentive items at food service operations;

C. Ban, prohibit, or otherwise restrict food at food service operations based upon the food’s nutrition information or upon the provision or non-provision of consumer incentive items;

D.  Condition any license, permit, or regulatory approval for a food service operation upon the existence or non-existence of food-based health disparities;

E. Where food service operations are permitted to operate, ban, prohibit, or otherwise restrict a food service operation based upon the existence or non-existence of food-based health disparities.


TITLE III: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect thirty (30) days after the date of passage.
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blackraisin
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« Reply #247 on: June 25, 2022, 04:18:48 PM »

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EQUALITY TO UKRAINE ACT

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1. The Equality to Moscow Act shall be amended as follows:

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The Equality To Moscow and Kiev Act (EMA)

Be it resolved by the Chamber of Delegates to that it hereby recommends to the Nyman Atlasian government the restriction of travel of Russian and Ukrainian elites (businessmen, oligarchs, members of the upper class) who provide assistance to the Russian or Ukrainian government into Atlasia and the freezing of Russian or Ukrainian assets in Atlasian banks for that nation's treatment of the LGBT community, journalists and the press, women, and political opposition.

2. This act shall take effect immediately.
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #248 on: June 25, 2022, 06:08:18 PM »

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KICK OUT THE GLOBALISTS ACT

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TITLE I: DEFUNDING THE GLOBALISTS

1. No Regional, State, or local public funds shall be paid to the United Nations (U.N.) or any of its subordinate departments, agencies, or organizations, or to the World Health Organization (WHO) or any of its subordinate departments, agencies, or organizations.This shall include but not be limited to the U.N. International Baccalaureate organization (IBO), the U.N. Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), the U.N. International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF), and the U.N. International Court of Justice.

2. No U.N. soldiers or peacekeepers shall be stationed in the Southern Region.

3. No part of the Southern Region shall be designated a world heritage site. Any such designation is hereby nullified and the Southern people shall remain sovereign over any land in the Southern Region.

4. No part of the Southern Region shall be subject to the jurisdiction of the International Criminal Court (ICC), nor shall any lawful resident of the Southern Region be extradited to the ICC.


TITLE II: RECOMMENDATIONS TO ATLASIA

1. The Southern Region hereby recommends that the Atlasian government:

A. Withdraw from the U.N. and WHO and require such organizations, and any of their subordinate departments, agencies, or organizations, to leave Atlasian soil. This shall include but not be limited to the U.N. International Baccalaureate organization (IBO), the U.N. Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), the U.N. International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF), and the U.N. International Court of Justice.

B. Refuse to permit U.N. soldiers or peacekeepers to be stationed on Atlasian soil, and refuse to allow Atlasian soldiers to serve under U.N. command.

C. Reject the U.N.'s Agenda 21 and Agenda 2030 plans.

D. Prohibit any public funds from funding the U.N. and the WHO and any of their subordinate departments, agencies, or organizations.

E. Refuse to permit the designation of any world heritage site on Atlasian soil and nullify any existing such designation.

F. Refuse to ratify the U.N. Arms Trade Treaty.

G. Refuse to ratify the U.N. Convention on the Rights of the Child.

H. Refuse to ratify any global pandemic treaty or International Health Regulations (IHR).

I. Refuse to ratify any treaty subjecting the government or people of Atlasia to any international taxation or taxation to the U.N. or any other foreign entity.

J. Refuse to ratify the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court and refuse to extradite any lawful resident of Atlasia to the ICC.

K. Withdraw from the U.N. Convention of the Law of the Sea.

L. Investigate any collusion or connection between the WHO, the PRC, and the China virus known as Covid-19.


TITLE III: ENACTMENT

1. This act shall take effect immediately.
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Mr. Reactionary
blackraisin
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« Reply #249 on: June 25, 2022, 07:25:41 PM »

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AGE OF JUVENILE DELINQUENCY ACT

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1. For purposes of any criminal prosecution in the Southern Region, a minor child aged ten (10) years or olders shall generally be deemed to be capable of criminal culpabity for purposes of establishing the mens rea required for a conviction. The defense may rebut this presumption for any minor child aged at least ten (10) years but less than twelve (12) years. The defense may not rebut this presumption for any minor child aged at least twelve (12) years but less than nineteen (19) years.

2. For purposes of any criminal prosecution in the Southern Region, a minor child younger than ten (10) years shall generally be deemed to be incapable of criminal culpabity for purposes of establishing the mens rea required for a conviction. The prosecution may rebut this presumption for any minor child aged older than eight (8 ) years but less than ten (10) years.

3. Nothing in this act shall limit any civil lawsuit in the Southern Region arising from the otherwise criminal conduct of a minor child. In any such civil lawsuit, the parents or guardians of the minor child shall be jointly and severally liable for any damages awarded due to the otherwise criminal conduct of their minor child.

4. This act shall take effect thirty (30) days after the date of passage.
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