Should looters be charged with a hate crime if
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  Should looters be charged with a hate crime if
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Author Topic: Should looters be charged with a hate crime if  (Read 859 times)
lfromnj
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« on: June 13, 2020, 10:53:45 AM »
« edited: June 13, 2020, 12:48:14 PM by lfromnj »

they see 2 stores and they know one is black owned and only loot the non-black owned one?
I say looting could be considered intimidation?
Lets assume we have admission from the looter or some other clear proof.

Anyway I say go ahead and charge them with the hate crime, so we can finally have an agreement to end the law once the woke left gets outraged at the law.
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SevenEleven
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« Reply #1 on: June 13, 2020, 01:56:26 PM »

Targeting property is already applicable under federal hate crime laws...for obvious reasons, at that.
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Esteemed Jimmy
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« Reply #2 on: June 13, 2020, 03:24:23 PM »

Yes
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MarkD
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« Reply #3 on: June 14, 2020, 12:58:21 PM »

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Former President tack50
tack50
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« Reply #4 on: June 17, 2020, 02:32:25 PM »

If you can find proof (or the looter confesses) that they looted only the black store because of it being owned by a black person (as opposed to say, being easier to loot, not having time or resources to loot both, etc) sure.

Otherwise no
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Del Tachi
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« Reply #5 on: June 21, 2020, 05:36:06 PM »

No, as there should be no such thing as a "hate crime".  A crime is a crime and should be tried the same regardless of the apparent motivation. 
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lfromnj
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« Reply #6 on: June 21, 2020, 05:43:52 PM »

No, as there should be no such thing as a "hate crime".  A crime is a crime and should be tried the same regardless of the apparent motivation. 
My question is more legal, I do mostly agree with you but I'm asking if in definition with the law as of right now.
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Badger
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« Reply #7 on: June 29, 2020, 09:03:01 PM »

No, as there should be no such thing as a "hate crime".  A crime is a crime and should be tried the same regardless of the apparent motivation. 

Measuring the severity and Punishment of crimes based on their varying motivation predates English common law. There's nothing PC about this.
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Del Tachi
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« Reply #8 on: June 29, 2020, 09:31:27 PM »

No, as there should be no such thing as a "hate crime".  A crime is a crime and should be tried the same regardless of the apparent motivation. 

Measuring the severity and Punishment of crimes based on their varying motivation predates English common law. There's nothing PC about this.

Only when determining motivation is an integral part of identifying the criminal act, like when determining whether to charge first degree murder or lower degrees.  This sort of standard has never been used for crimes like robbery or arson.
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