Why did Michigan go Willkie in 40 but Roosevelt in 44 (user search)
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  Why did Michigan go Willkie in 40 but Roosevelt in 44 (search mode)
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Author Topic: Why did Michigan go Willkie in 40 but Roosevelt in 44  (Read 1391 times)
morgankingsley
Junior Chimp
*****
Posts: 5,018
United States


« on: August 26, 2019, 07:46:43 PM »

If my visual map is correct in my memory it is the only state in the entire country to have Roosevelt win it, the republican win it, and then Roosevelt win it again in a following election. So why did this strange anomaly occur
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morgankingsley
Junior Chimp
*****
Posts: 5,018
United States


« Reply #1 on: September 15, 2019, 09:57:20 PM »

FDR increased his margin of victory by ~50k votes in Wayne County. I would guess this was related to the city being a big manufacturing hub for the war effort.

That's a good point
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morgankingsley
Junior Chimp
*****
Posts: 5,018
United States


« Reply #2 on: September 16, 2019, 06:49:29 PM »

I'm more curious about the reverse result in Wisconsin and Ohio: voted for FDR in 1940 but Dewey in 1944. One would have thought that German backlash would have been enough to flip these states to Willkie in 1940 - especially in Wisconsin.

Looking at Ohio's counties, I would assume the controversial coal strikes during the war hurt FDR with miners (seems to have also been the case in Wyoming). But I can't explain Wisconsin at all.

I guess maybe Wisconsin was just comparatively conservative to the rest of the rust belt / midwest states
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