"Realigning elections"
J-Mann:
Quote from: A18 on October 14, 2005, 04:07:10 PM
I agree with this quote:
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Very good point; I agree with that.
dazzleman:
Quote from: Emsworth on October 14, 2005, 04:18:09 PM
I do not feel that there is any such thing as an election that suddenly realigns the populace. The election is not the cause of the realignment; rather, it is the result. The realignment has already taken place, over several years; the election is but a symptom.
I very much agree with this statement.
A18:
Well, at least I got some replies. Next time someone talks about a "realigning election," please link him to this thread so we can get a discussion going.
J. J.:
One thing that is being missed is that when political scientists talk about "realignments," they are generally referring to a six to eight year cycle. They will look at FDR's ascendancy and say that was beginning in 1930 and finished up in 1936. They will also look at intraparty ideology, i.e. the Congressional Democratic Party moved substantially to the left over that period.
Using that analogy, 1978-84 was a realignment, abet a weaker one than 1930-36, but stronger than c. 1896.
J-Mann:
Quote from: A18 on October 14, 2005, 09:22:30 PM
Well, at least I got some replies. Next time someone talks about a "realigning election," please link him to this thread so we can get a discussion going.
Maybe there's a usual frustration at the lack of response when you usually post topics like this? :) Quite understandable, but I hope you'll continue them when you find an interesting subject such as this. I'm a few years away from any political theory discussions like this, and it's always interesting to dive back in. Thanks for providing the full text article -- it's one of the few publications that I don't have a subscription to. I'll try to add a bit from the National Journal or CongressDaily every once in a while.
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