how can you unify what was never one? (outside of British rule)
Actually, the Kingdom of Ireland was an independent state in personal union with England and Scotland.
The Ascendancy period? I mean, technically, but... er...
The people had about as much power as in any country in Europe, except maybe San Marino or something.
No.
Now if you wanted to troll on this point you may wish to take note of the 1689 Patriot Parliament headed by James II, then deposed in England, which did indeed have authority over the whole island, if not for very long.
Fair enough. Please explain how an English peasant had any more control over their country than did an Irish peasant. In taxes, foreign policy, justice, they basically were powerless. Also, need I mention that the after Elizabeth most of these monarchs were Scottish, not even English? And even the previous so called English were from Normandy, anyway. The average person in either country had little to no identification with their masters, even after the monarchy started using less of its power. Or should we pretend Walpole was ruling with consent of the governed in a public trust?
