Right now in my personal Bible study, I'm starting to go over Hosea (having just finished with Daniel). I've gotta admit, if weren't that I think the details of his personal life were most likely myth, I'd be feeling a good deal of sympathy for Hosea right now. Anyway, in Hosea 1:4-5, the prophet Hosea is told by Y
HWH to name his son Jezreel.
Now, most translations agree that the house of Jehu is to be punished for the bloodshed of Jezreel, but that causes a problem. According to 2 Kings 9-10, the bloodshed done at Jezreel against the house of Ahab was sanctioned by Yahweh thru his prophets. Now one reason I use the NASB (indeed the only reason I use the NASB) is that it has an extensive set of cross-references and footnotes, and the footnote for verse 4 indicates that the phrase translated "I will punish the house of Jehu for the bloodshed of Jezreel" is literally "I will visit the bloodshed of Jezreel on the house of Jehu". It seems to me that to avoid a contradiction, the passage in Hosea can't be taken as saying the house of Jehu will be punished for Jezreel, but instead that the house of Jehu will be punished in the manner of Jezreel. However, I can't help but wonder if my interpretation is correct, how did the other interpretation become so predominant as to show up in almost all translations.
Thoughts?