Should voting ever be tied to land ownership?
I spent the winter writing songs about getting better:
Philip's idea, and quite possibly the stupidest thing I've ever heard from him. Which is saying a lot.
My vote of course is no.
muon2:
No, if it involves elected offices.
However, if the subject is a special taxing area for an improvement such as a street, sidewalk, or stoplight, then the answer could be yes. If the area is proposed to be imposed only on a few owners, for their benefit, the landowners should be able to "opt out" by majority vote.
Jake:
Of course. :p
muon2:
Quote from: muon2 on October 22, 2004, 09:12:58 PM
No, if it involves elected offices.
However, if the subject is a special taxing area for an improvement such as a street, sidewalk, or stoplight, then the answer could be yes. If the area is proposed to be imposed only on a few owners, for their benefit, the landowners should be able to "opt out" by majority vote.
BTW, what I describe is the law in IL, and I suspect in other states as well. The number of properties involved is determined, and voting is done by a notarized petition.
A18:
Yes, in one house of the state legislature
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