Would members agree with this?
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  Would members agree with this?
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Author Topic: Would members agree with this?  (Read 621 times)
Harry Hayfield
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« on: August 02, 2008, 04:59:28 PM »

If a candidate is leading in a state poll by more than the number of people who have not chosen a candidate, that candidate can be deemed as the winner

For instance, if a state poll has McCain 50% Obama 35%, that state could be called for McCain but a McCain 45% Obama 40% poll would be a tossup?
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bullmoose88
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« Reply #1 on: August 02, 2008, 05:00:57 PM »

If a candidate is leading in a state poll by more than the number of people who have not chosen a candidate, that candidate can be deemed as the winner

For instance, if a state poll has McCain 50% Obama 35%, that state could be called for McCain but a McCain 45% Obama 40% poll would be a tossup?


I'd certainly agree with that if we're talking about an incumbent or candidate who has incumbent type advantages.
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Alcon
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« Reply #2 on: August 02, 2008, 05:04:01 PM »
« Edited: August 02, 2008, 05:06:31 PM by Alcon »

Not necessarily, on a statistical level.

Even if the race existed in a vacuum, there's always a chance that the poll is just wrong.  Besides, if the poll is 50-49, there's a very high statistical chance that the other candidate is leading.  If it's 50-19, not so much.
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Verily
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« Reply #3 on: August 02, 2008, 05:18:18 PM »

That's a somewhat problematic and arbitrary designation. 49-36 is really no more of a toss-up than 50-35, for example. But certainly if the lead is more than five points and one candidate is at 50% or greater, the victor, if not the result, is probably set in stone.
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Vsanto5
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« Reply #4 on: August 02, 2008, 06:56:26 PM »

You mean like Utah for McCain?  Or Alabama for McCain? or Illinois for Obama? LOL
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