We don't doubt they're
real, we just noted the illegality of setting a different standard for functionally identical crimes.
Out of curiosity, how is the distinction between manslaughter and murder tenable in light of this ruling?
That's interesting. The judgement in
Snowstalker v. The Midwest has no bearing on manslaughter
vis a vis murder. While the Court was critical of 'hate crimes' due to the impossibility of proving motive, it also noted that in the ruling that even where motive is completely evident there is still an equal protection violation since the crimes are nonetheless functionally identical. If two perpetrators intend to murder two victims, regardless of a perceived prejudiced motive, the crimes are functionally identical. If a third perpetrator kills a third victim but the intention to murder is less obvious, or are there mitigating factors such as mental disability or impairment, that crime is
not functionally identical to the former two.
To use the relevant example, charging a homophobe who kills a gay person for manslaughter rather than murder (or a 'hate crime') would not be in violation of the constitution since there remains a reasonable distinction between the two crimes.