What was the reasoning behind Reynolds v. Sims, anyways? If it's democratic enough for the federal government, it seems weird that it would be unconstitutional for the state governments. I wonder if it will get overturned.
I think it's because the United States is meant to be a union of states, with the Senate being where they are all represented as equals. Whereas states are not a union of counties; in fact, counties themselves only exist at the pleasure of the state governments that authorize their creation.
