Mideast Discussion: Mideastern Budget Amendment

[OAM]

I think you alluded to it in your second post, but just to be sure, there's like no official "emergency" status that needs to be declared in addition to the 2/3 vote?

[OAM]

Whenever such language is used, my mind automatically jumps to whatever that was under FDR that made trade illegal with warring nations, passed happily by congress and signed, but gave the power to decide who was at war and who wasn't to the president, so that it could be only selectively applied.

[OAM]

Whenever such language is used, my mind automatically jumps to whatever that was under FDR that made trade illegal with warring nations, passed happily by congress and signed, but gave the power to decide who was at war and who wasn't to the president, so that it could be only selectively applied.

No, the power would lie with the Assembly.  Although, like any budget, the Governor would have to go along with it, as he has to sign the budgets.

This made me think of another issue.  What would be the repercussions of not passing a budget?  Also, what would happen if they passed one, got it on the governor's desk before July 1st, and then it got vetoed.  What would be the legal status then, both if the veto was before July 1st or after?  (Or would only one of those occur because of how terms work?)

[OAM]

Whenever such language is used, my mind automatically jumps to whatever that was under FDR that made trade illegal with warring nations, passed happily by congress and signed, but gave the power to decide who was at war and who wasn't to the president, so that it could be only selectively applied.

No, the power would lie with the Assembly.  Although, like any budget, the Governor would have to go along with it, as he has to sign the budgets.

This made me think of another issue.  What would be the repercussions of not passing a budget?  Also, what would happen if they passed one, got it on the governor's desk before July 1st, and then it got vetoed.  What would be the legal status then, both if the veto was before July 1st or after?  (Or would only one of those occur because of how terms work?)

My interpretation is that it could be overridden just like any other statute.

Well I suppose so, but that's not the point.  Is the assembly obliged to do so, or is simply getting one to the governors desk by July 1 sufficient.  I could see the arguments for both.

[OAM]

This part here.

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So say the assembly passes a budget and gets it on the Governor's desk June 30.  Does that mean their job is done because they got a passed budget by the set time and thus the matter is out of their hands, or if he vetoes it are they required to go back and make a new budget? Would this matter if it was vetoed June 30 or July 2nd?

And there's still the outstanding question of what happens if the assembly doesn't pass a budget.  What recourse is there.

[OAM]

Okay, thanks.  The first part was my main concern, though I'm uncomfortable leaving it open for the courts, though at the present time (2 am ) I have little to offer for an alternative.