so, I am going to use the definition of "sexual desire or behavior directed toward a person or persons of one's own sex" and using that definition, we see the bible speaking directly to BOTH homosexual desire and homosexual actions.
So, not only does the bible condemn homosexuality, the bibical allowed context for sex does not encompass homosexuality. It is not only disallowed, it doesn't mesh with the context of what is allowed.
Does this mean homosexual desires are sinful? How is one supposed to stop himself entirely from having 'desires'?