It's certainly plausible. Does anyone really think that these areas went 100% for Obama? If you look at the exit polls, you see actual self-identified liberals who voted for Romney and conservatives who voted for Obama. And yet these areas are 100% unified?
Even if it's not literal fraud, it's defacto fraud. Because the only explanation for such overwhelming homogeneity in the vote, other then fraud, is tribal bloc voting that is fundamentally at odds with democracy.
Yes, I am quite confident Obama got 100% in various precincts.
The exit poll results aren't uniform everywhere. McCain got over 20% of liberals in Arkansas, and Romney probably got a similar number in West Virginia. Poor, overwhelmingly African-American inner city areas have been hardcore Democratic since FDR, and almost any other Democrat, white or black, would have gotten 100% in at least some precincts in Chicago and Philly.
