What is this statement saying?

[Alcibiades]

The 2nd Amendment only makes grammatical sense if there is just one comma, in between “State” and “the right”. This does then imply that people have the right to keep and bear arms, with a well-regulated militia for the security of the State being just one reason. Now, I think the 2nd Amendment is completely unfit for purpose in the modern world, but using a textualist interpretation, it clearly says that there is a right to keep and bear arms regardless of whether or not you are in a well-regulated militia.