Why? (user search)
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  Presidential Elections - Analysis and Discussion
  Presidential Election Process (Moderator: muon2)
  Why? (search mode)
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Author Topic: Why?  (Read 5044 times)
Magic 8-Ball
mrk
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« on: October 30, 2012, 03:03:13 AM »

Hovering around 45 and 55%?  Has the US ever had a presidential election with turnout as a fraction of eligible voters below 50%?  Wasn't even 1996 above 50%?

In any case, I assume that part of the reason for the US, UK, and Canada being low is because of the electoral system, and the fact that both 1) votes in noncompetitive states or districts are "wasted", and 2) FPTP means that voting for longshot parties is pointless, other than for symbolic reasons.


According to this website, it's happened thrice - 1920, 1924, and 1996.
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Magic 8-Ball
mrk
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Posts: 3,674
Czech Republic


« Reply #1 on: October 30, 2012, 05:28:28 AM »
« Edited: October 30, 2012, 06:37:22 AM by Magic 8-Ball »

Yeah, that completely slipped my mind.  Let's blame it on a lack of sleep. Tongue  Either way, Mea culpa.

I can't find a nice chart with a turnout-to-eligible-voter comparison; the best I could find is this Washington Post article from 2006 that says:

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And a graph (green is %eligible voters):

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