Would this not apply to descendants of slaves from other slave colonies (Jamaica, Brazil, Haiti etc.)? If so I wonder what their line of thought is for that
In the cases of Jamaica and Haiti, those who've made it to America tend to be middle to upper middle class and are often somewhat different culturally from ADOS so the distinction makes sense. But the way they're phrasing it sounds weird.
But there are lots of wealthy and upper-middle class ADOS as well, certainly more than there are wealthy and upper middle class Jamaican or Haitian immigrants (the idea that such immigrants are predominantly well off when taken as a whole and in an American context is pretty laughable, honestly, even if they are the middle class of Jamaica or Haiti). And those wealthy and upper-middle class ADOS, perhaps not irrelevantly to this discussion, tend to end up as the primary beneficiaries of affirmative action and similar policies to begin with over actually impoverished ADOS or immigrant families. Ultimately, this reads like privilege-protection by the Jack and Jill set: Not for the first time.