Is there any proof that the ballots counted in the manual recount were fradulent and not valid?
Or are Republicans just assuming they are, with no evidence?
The 8 vote Gregoire lead doesn't include the 573 ballots in King County, though I see no reason to believe that those aren't valid votes, either.
What about the several hundred other found ballots?
According to actual state law, the ballots shouldn't count. Turning up enough ballots at the end to win is a classic old Democrat trick that goes back to the days of good ol' Mayor Richard Daley of Chicago. No one else has added any "new" ballots to this recount, only King County is trying to; the other "new" ballots in other counties that changed the numbers were found to have not been counted by the machines before.
Also, if there isn't enough proof of MSM bias, note that when the Dem chairman says that Gregoire has an 8-vote win, the AP says Gregoire has an 8-vote win. Whenever they referred to Rossi's wins earlier, the AP reported them as "leads" or "ties".
As a Democrat, I'm proud to see that we were able to successfully steal this election and that there are plenty of Democrat supporters who continue to be dumb enough after all of these years to believe that the win was fair and square. Means we can keep doing this until kingdom comes if we need to. Yee-haw!
I fail to see how the actions of Richard Daley 40 or more years ago are relevant to the current Washington Governor's race. Every Democrat for the rest of eternity will now automatically be assumed to be trying to steal an election, because of Daley? Or is there a statute of limitations that will eventually expire?
Not to mention that it's a tad simplistic to assume that all members of a party will behave exactly the same way, especially over a long period of time.
The media reports that I've seen have reported that Rossi won the original count by 261, and the machine recount by 42, and that Gregoire won the hand count by 8. I haven't seen any inconsisties in reporting, in the use of the terms "lead" and "win", but then obviously I haven't checked every conceivable source.
Apparently the concept of "guilty until proven innocent" is what applies here. The default is to assume that Democrats have cheated, unless they can prove that they haven't cheated, right? I have never seen any proof or even evidence really that these ballots are invalid, other than basically "well they just have to be fradulent votes, because those Democrats will do anything to win".
