I think most believe that overturning Roe vs. Wade would mean automatic outlawing of most abortions, and that's why a majority doesn't support overturning it.
Why wouldn't the overturning of Roe V Wade mean the outlawing of abortion? There are Republican majorities in both houses of congress, and a Republican president. I think it is reasonable to assume they would make it illegal.
Because any overturning of Roe v. Wade would leave abortion in its pre-1972 state, in which individual states determined its fate. It was legal in several states, including California, before 1972; presumably different states will have different laws.
It was legal in Utah as well, interestingly enough.
If Roe vs Wade was overturned and it once again became a matter for the states to decide, which I happen to agree with, would pre-1972 state laws be valid?
Dave
Probably at least at first, until new laws are passed. It might depend on
how Roe V. Wade is overturned, though. Ask Emsworth, he's more in the know legalistically then I am.