It's interesting that the writer takes it as a given that the government isn't representative of the people and that the majority are to the right of the government.
Of course, if there is a majority for an agreement, the same majority could simply get rid of this law first to avoid a referendum.
Yes, I should have been more clear I meant the majority of voting MKs.
The quote from the article above states that a two-thirds supermajority would be required to overrule the law - is it incorrect?
