No, I'm telling you that your new-found interpretation of this particular passage might be.
this isn't a new found interpretation of mine, as if I am interpreting the statement differently than I used to, I just never paid attention (or can't remember paying attention) to what Joseph said about the significance of Pharaoh having two separate drems.
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But, didn’t me citing all the other translations of that verse show that Joseph was clearly referring to the two separate dreams and not the two separate groups of cows or the two separate groups of stalks?
“32The reason the dream was given to Pharaoh in two forms is that the matter has been firmly decided by God, and God will do it soon.” (NIV)
“32And the doubling of Pharaoh’s dream means that the thing is fixed by God, and God will shortly bring it about” (ESV)
“32And for that the dream was doubled unto Pharaoh twice; it is because the thing is established by God, and God will shortly bring it to pass.” (KJV)
The dream of 7 fats cows followed by 7 skinny cows is NOT a redundant in itself, for they represent two different things: seven bountiful years followed by seven years of famine. Same goes for the dreams of stalks, the two groups of stalks represent seven bountiful years followed by seven years of famine, and therefore are not redundant.
So, clearly, Joseph is referring to the redundancy of the two separate dreams – God gave Pharaoh the same message twice by having him dream two separate dreams of the same upcoming series of events.
How can you disagree with that?
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Since this being is an interpretation issue and I would assume you would like your interpretation to be the correct one, getting a second opinion is just a good idea, don't you think? And if you're going to get a second opinion, shouldn't it be from someone like your pastor whose opinion you respect and who I would assume has gone through seminary and studied the Bible extensively? Or do you feel there's someone else I should recommend you go to in order to get another believer's interpretation? 1) I already know what my pastor believes regarding the law of two or three witnesses.
2) Please check any and every bible commentary that expounds upon Gen 41:32, you’re sure to find the vast majority of them, if not all of them, agreeing that Joseph is referring to the two separate dreams.
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Well, it sounds to me like you're trying to link the passage to that concept in such a way that to me doesn't seem to mesh up properly. It just doesn't seem to me the two have anything to do with one another for reasons I've already explained.
We were previously talking about building doctrines only if there are two or three witnesses from the word of God, and here is Joseph stating that God repeats a matter twice to that the intended audience can be sure of the teaching. The two seems to mesh completely to me.