Biased reporting in Europe of American politics: A debate (user search)
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  Biased reporting in Europe of American politics: A debate (search mode)
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Hashemite
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« on: January 10, 2011, 03:10:28 PM »

There's no such thing as unbiased media. At the very best it just shares the bias of most of its consumers.

^^^

This is correct, of course. Every media source has its bias, and in Europe it tends to be even more pronounced with the tradition of "right-wing papers" and "left-wing papers". Furthermore, given the rise of large media conglomerates/empires the media will obviously share the bias of its owner (ex: Pelladeau's media empire of darkness in Canada). And yeah, it will share the bias of its consumers most of the time or its bias will affect its consumers (the people who read stuff like the Ottawa Sun or Le Figaro don't usually vote left-wing).

For fun, I was watching France 2's nightly news from the day of the Madrid train bombings. Given France's Jacobin bias and France's "Basque problem", it jumped all on the original "blame the Basques/ETA" of the Falangist government in Madrid and proceeded to spew the Spanish State's official version of what ETA is and how it is an evil, evil thing. I suppose the American media that night may have been more temperate and may have privileged the Islamist terrorist idea given that nobody in America cares about ETA.
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Hashemite
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« Reply #1 on: January 11, 2011, 08:35:16 AM »


Please, that's just false. I just pointed it out with my comment about French TV's coverage of ETA in regards to the Madrid bombings. Newspapers and media sources are often closely associated with a particular party/viewpoint; more so than even in North America. It's undeniable, also, that European (+Canadian) media coverage of Obama is more favourable to him than most American media coverage.
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