As the title says. I've noticed that over the past 25 years, Democrats have won the popular vote in all but one election (that of 2004). In all four elections where the popular-vote winner lost the election (1876 (most terrifyingly), 1888, 2000, and 2016), that person was a Democrat. Why is it that Democrats have this advantage, even when, geographically speaking, most of the nation's counties vote Republican every cycle?
In 1888, 2K and 2016, the dem margins in the big states outweighed the smaller gop wins in the other states.
In the case of 1876, blame the corrupt southern governors and the "Compromise (Inside Job) of 1877".
